A client with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and is given a prescription for doxycycline 100mg BID for 7 days, The nurse explains to the client that this combination is prescribed to

Treat any coexisting chlamydial infection.

Eradicate any resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae.

Prevent reinfection during treatment.

Prevent the development of resistant organisms.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Gonorrhea and chlamydia often coexist in individuals, and doxycycline is prescribed to treat chlamydia in addition to ceftriaxone for gonorrhea. Treating both infections is crucial to reduce the risk of complications and reinfection.

B. While ceftriaxone is effective against N. gonorrhoeae, doxycycline is used to treat chlamydia, not to eradicate resistant strains of gonorrhea.

C. Reinfection during treatment can be minimized with both medications, but the primary purpose of doxycycline is to treat a possible co-infection with chlamydia.

D. This combination therapy does not primarily aim to prevent the development of resistant organisms but to treat both infections effectively.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. It is appropriate to monitor for symptoms of bradycardia, but the student is currently asymptomatic.

B. Referral to a cardiologist is not necessary unless the student develops symptoms or other concerning signs.

C. Sinus bradycardia can be normal in young, healthy athletes, especially those who engage in regular physical activity. Since the student is asymptomatic, with no signs of dyspnea, chest pain, or other concerning symptoms, there is no reason to restrict participation in sports.

D. Family history may be helpful, but this is not the immediate priority when the student is asymptomatic.

A. Client with serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL. B. Client with serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. C. Client with serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping. D. Client with serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Client with serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL: This is within the normal range for phosphorus (2.5-4.5 mg/dL), and the client does not require immediate assessment.

B. Client with serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes: This is the correct answer. A magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L is below the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L), and symptoms like tremors and hyperactive reflexes indicate hypomagnesemia, which can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias.

C. Client with serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so this client does not need immediate intervention.

D. Client with serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water: A sodium level of 145 mEq/L is at the upper end of normal (135-145 mEq/L), and the symptoms are likely due to dehydration or a normal response.

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A client with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and is given a prescription for doxycycline 100mg BID for 7 days, The nurse explains to the client that this combination is prescribed to

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 20-year-old has a mandatory electrocardiogram (ECG) before participating on a college soccer team and is found to have sinus bradycardia, rate 52. The students blood pressure is 119/76 and denies any health issues. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

After receiving change-of-shift report, which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is being discharged home after a large myocardial infarction and subsequent coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. The client's sternal wound has not yet healed. What statement by the client most indicates a higher risk of developing sepsis after discharge?

A client who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the client may have been taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that client will receive which antidote?

What would be the priority intervention for the care of the client who is pulseless and has the following rhythm on the monitor?

A client with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first?

The nurse assesses a client who just returned to the recovery area after undergoing a balloon angioplasty to improve circulation to the left leg. What assessment finding is the most concerning?

While working in the outpatient clinic, the nurse notes that the client has a history of intermittent claudication. Which statement by the client would support this information?

After the nurse has taught the client with a newly diagnosed sexually transmitted infection about expedited partner therapy, which client statement indicates that teaching has been effective?

After starting the treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus 6 months earlier, a client is in the office for a follow-up examination. The nurse will monitor which laboratory test to evaluate the clients adherence to the antidiabetic therapy over the past few months?