A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving mannitol via intravenous infusion. Which assessment finding is most important in determining the effectiveness of this treatment?

Level of consciousness is improving.

Blood pressure is rising.

Urine output is increased.

Hyperpyrexia is resolving.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Level of consciousness is improving. The effectiveness of mannitol treatment for a client with increased intracranial pressure can be assessed through the improvement of the level of consciousness. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It works by increasing the osmotic pressure in the bloodstream, which draws fluid out of the brain and into the bloodstream. The reduction of intracranial pressure helps improve cerebral perfusion and blood flow. Therefore, improving the client's level of consciousness is the most important assessment finding to determine the effectiveness of mannitol treatment.

B is not the correct answer because a rise in blood pressure is not an indicator of the effectiveness of mannitol treatment.

C is not the correct answer because increased urine output is a side effect of mannitol treatment and does not necessarily indicate effectiveness.

D is not the correct answer because hyperpyrexia is not a symptom that is treated with mannitol.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

cryptorchidism as an infant. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. During fetal development, the testicles form in the abdomen and descend into the scrotum before birth. Failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum can increase the risk of testicular cancer later in life. Therefore, a history of cryptorchidism as an infant is the most important assessment finding to identify clients at higher risk of developing testicular cancer.

Choice A, previous sexually transmitted infection (STI), is incorrect because although STIs can increase the risk of certain types of cancer, they are not a significant risk factor for testicular cancer.

Choice C, low sperm count, is incorrect because although low sperm count can be associated with testicular cancer, it is not a reliable indicator for determining a higher risk for testicular cancer. Low sperm count may also be caused by various other factors, such as hormonal imbalances, infections, varicocele, and genetic abnormalities. While it is important to monitor and treat low sperm count, it is not a definitive indicator of testicular cancer risk.

A. Kwashiorkor. B. Anorexia nervosa. C. Crohn's disease. D. Bulimia nervosa.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Anorexia nervosa is a nutritional disorder characterized by a distorted body image and fear of weight gain, leading to an abnormally low body weight. Clients with anorexia nervosa may also engage in binge eating and purging behaviors.

Choice A is incorrect because Kwashiorkor is a type of protein-energy malnutrition caused by a severe protein deficiency.

Choice C is incorrect because Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease.

Choice D is incorrect because Bulimia nervosa is a nutritional disorder characterized by binge eating and purging behaviors.

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A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving mannitol via intravenous infusion. Which assessment finding is most important in determining the effectiveness of this treatment?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which assessment finding is most important in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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