A client with nephrotic syndrome is undergoing a blood test to assess serum lipid levels. What is the rationale for monitoring lipid levels in this client?
To identify the presence of liver dysfunction.
To assess for secondary diabetes mellitus.
To detect potential hyperlipidemia.
To evaluate electrolyte imbalances.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Incorrect. Monitoring lipid levels is not primarily aimed at identifying liver dysfunction in clients with nephrotic syndrome.
B. Incorrect. While nephrotic syndrome can lead to secondary diabetes mellitus in some cases, monitoring lipid levels is not a direct indicator of diabetes.
C. Correct. Nephrotic syndrome is associated with increased levels of lipids, including cholesterol and triglycerides, in the blood (hyperlipidemiA. . Monitoring lipid levels helps detect this common complication of nephrotic syndrome and informs treatment decisions.
D. Incorrect. Monitoring lipid levels is not directly related to evaluating electrolyte imbalances in clients with nephrotic syndrome. Electrolyte imbalances are typically assessed through separate blood tests.
QUESTIONS
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Incorrect. Elevated blood pressure and fluid overload are more indicative of fluid retention and hypertension in nephrotic syndrome, not hypoalbuminemia.
B. Correct. Hypoalbuminemia, a common feature of nephrotic syndrome, results from the loss of albumin (a protein) in the urine. Low albumin levels can lead to muscle weakness and fatigue due to decreased oncotic pressure in the blood vessels, resulting in fluid shifting from the blood vessels to the interstitial spaces.
C. Incorrect. Hyperactivity and restlessness are not typical manifestations of hypoalbuminemia and nephrotic syndrome.
D. Incorrect. Pallor and cold extremities are not directly related to hypoalbuminemia and are not specific to nephrotic syndrome.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Incorrect. While increased proteinuria can increase the risk of clot formation in the urinary tract, anticoagulant therapy is not typically prescribed for this reason in nephrotic syndrome.
B. Incorrect. Anticoagulants are not primarily used to reduce inflammation and pain associated with kidney damage.
C. Incorrect. Anticoagulants do not directly impact the risk of infection related to hypoalbuminemia.
D. Correct. Nephrotic syndrome can cause damage to the glomerular capillaries, leading to clot formation. Anticoagulant therapy is prescribed to prevent clot formation in the kidneys and reduce the risk of complications such as renal vein thrombosis.
QUESTIONS
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