A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports occasional atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance. On auscultation, the nurse notes a systolic click. The nurse should recognize this finding as a manifestation of which of the following conditions?
Aortic regurgitation,
Mitral stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Mitral valve prolapse
The Correct Answer is D
A. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation typically presents with a diastolic murmur, not a systolic click.
B. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis presents with a diastolic murmur, often associated with an opening snap, rather than a systolic click.
C. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis typically presents with a systolic ejection murmur, but not a systolic click.
D. Mitral valve prolapse: This is the correct answer. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is characterized by the displacement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, often producing a systolic click. Symptoms associated with MVP can include atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Carvedilol:Carvedilol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Beta-2 blockade can lead to bronchoconstriction, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms. Clarification is needed to see if a cardioselective beta-blocker (like metoprolol) would be safer.
B. Captopril:Captopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used in heart failure to reduce blood pressure and decrease the workload on the heart. It does not have bronchoconstrictive effects and is safe for use in clients with asthma.
C. Isosorbide dinitrate:Isosorbide dinitrate is a nitrate used to manage heart failure by dilating blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart. It has no effect on bronchial smooth muscle and is not contraindicated in asthma, so no clarification is needed.
D. Fluticasone:Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid used to manage asthma by reducing inflammation in the airways. It is beneficial in clients with asthma and does not pose a risk to clients with heart failure. There is no need to clarify this medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Remove the catheter: Removing the catheter may not be the immediate priority. The nurse should focus on preventing further air entry into the circulation and addressing the symptoms.
B. Replace the infusion system: While ensuring that the infusion system is intact is important, it is not the primary action needed to manage an air embolism.
C. Prepare for chest tube insertion: Chest tube insertion is not the primary intervention for an air embolism. The focus should be on preventing the progression of the embolism and providing supportive care.
D. Place the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position: This is the correct answer. Placing the client on the left side in Trendelenburg position is a maneuver used to trap air in the right atrium, preventing it from traveling to the pulmonary artery. The left side position helps to prevent the air from traveling to the right ventricle and into the pulmonary artery, reducing the risk of further complications.
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