A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports occasional atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance. On auscultation, the nurse notes a systolic click. The nurse should recognize this finding as a manifestation of which of the following conditions?

Aortic regurgitation,

Mitral stenosis

Aortic stenosis

Mitral valve prolapse

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation typically presents with a diastolic murmur, not a systolic click.

B. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis presents with a diastolic murmur, often associated with an opening snap, rather than a systolic click.

C. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis typically presents with a systolic ejection murmur, but not a systolic click.

D. Mitral valve prolapse: This is the correct answer. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is characterized by the displacement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, often producing a systolic click. Symptoms associated with MVP can include atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Flexing her ankles: Ankle flexion exercises and periodic ankle flexion are encouraged to promote blood circulation and prevent venous stasis, which can contribute to the development of venous thromboembolism (VTE).

B. Elevating her feet: Elevating the feet can also help prevent venous stasis and promote blood circulation. It is a recommended action to reduce the risk of VTE.

C. Massaging her legs: This is the correct answer. Massage of the legs, particularly deep tissue massage, can dislodge blood clots and increase the risk of embolization, including the risk of venous thromboembolism.

D. Ambulating soon after surgery: Early ambulation is an important preventive measure for VTE. It helps stimulate blood flow and prevents venous stasis. Encouraging the client to ambulate as soon as possible after surgery is a recommended practice.

A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage." B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen." C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency." D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage": This statement is not accurate. While heparin may be used in the treatment of DIC, it is not a lifelong therapy, and the approach to treatment depends on the underlying cause.

B. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation involving fibrinogen": This is the correct answer. DIC is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi throughout the body. Abnormal coagulation involves the consumption of clotting factors, including fibrinogen.

C. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency": This statement is not accurate. DIC is not a genetic disorder, and it is not primarily related to vitamin K deficiency. It is an acquired condition often associated with severe infections, sepsis, trauma, or other critical illnesses.

D. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count": This statement is not accurate. In DIC, there is often a decrease in platelet count due to consumption and activation of platelets in the widespread formation of microthrombi.

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A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports occasional atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance. On auscultation, the nurse notes a systolic click. The nurse should recognize this finding as a manifestation of which of the following conditions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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