A nurse is assessing a client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Excessive thrombosis and bleeding

Increased clotting factors

Progressive increase in platelet production

Immediate sodium and fluid retention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Excessive thrombosis and bleeding

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is a complex and serious condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to both excessive clot formation (thrombosis) and simultaneous consumption of clotting factors and platelets, resulting in bleeding. DIC can occur as a secondary complication to various conditions such as sepsis, trauma, or obstetric complications.

B. Increased clotting factors: In DIC, there is consumption and depletion of clotting factors, not an increase.

C. Progressive increase in platelet production: Platelet production does not increase in DIC; instead, there is consumption and decreased platelet count.

D. Immediate sodium and fluid retention: DIC is not associated with immediate sodium and fluid retention; instead, it is characterized by fluid loss due to bleeding.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. "This test will help my provider adjust my warfarin dosages": aPTT is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Instead, it is more commonly associated with monitoring heparin therapy.

B. "If my levels are too low, I am at an increased risk for bleeding": This statement is inaccurate. Low levels of clotting factors could lead to a prolonged aPTT, which might increase the risk of bleeding.

C. "It measures deficiencies in clotting factors."

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a laboratory test that evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. The aPTT measures the time it takes for a clot to form and reflects the activity of various clotting factors, including factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII. An elevated aPTT may indicate a deficiency or dysfunction of one or more clotting factors.

D. "I will need to skip breakfast until after the test is complete": There is no need for the client to skip breakfast before an aPTT test. The test is not affected by food intake.

A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

pH 7.22: Indicates acidosis (normal range: 7.35-7.45).

PaCO2 68 mm Hg: Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide, suggesting respiratory acidosis (normal range: 35-45 mm Hg).

Base excess -2: Indicates a mild metabolic acidosis.

PaO2 78 mm Hg: Within the normal range (80-100 mm Hg), indicating adequate oxygenation.

Saturation 80%: Below the normal range (95-100%), suggesting some degree of hypoxemia.

Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L: Elevated bicarbonate levels, suggesting metabolic compensation for the respiratory acidosis.

Therefore, the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation (mild metabolic acidosis).

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A nurse is assessing a client who has disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client scheduled for an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? pH 7.22 PaCO2 68 mm Hg Base excess -2 PaO2 78 mm Hg Saturation 80% Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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