A diabetic client who is currently taking metformin is ordered a computerized tomography (CT) scan with contrast. The nurse understands that the client's metformin should be discontinued how many hours before receiving intravenous (IV) contrast?

24 hours

12 hours

6 hours

48 hours

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Discontinuing metformin 24 hours before a CT scan is longer than necessary and not standard practice.
B. It is generally recommended that metformin be held for at least 12 hours before the administration of IV contrast to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis, especially in clients with renal impairment.
C. Six hours is insufficient time to ensure the medication is cleared from the system, considering the potential risks.
D. Discontinuing metformin for 48 hours is overly cautious and not necessary unless there are complications that arise after the contrast is administered.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.

A. The client's blood pressure is within the expected reference range. B. The client reports a recent weight gain. C. The client reports an increase in mood. D. The client's legs are not swollen.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While maintaining blood pressure within the expected range is important, it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of sertraline, which is an antidepressant.
B. Weight gain can occur with some antidepressants, but it is not a direct indicator of their effectiveness.
C. An increase in mood is a primary goal of treatment with sertraline, and reporting this improvement suggests that the medication is having a positive effect.
D. The absence of swollen legs is not a relevant indicator for assessing the effectiveness of sertraline, as it does not relate to mood or depression symptoms.

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A diabetic client who is currently taking metformin is ordered a computerized tomography (CT) scan with contrast. The nurse understands that the client's metformin should be discontinued how many hours before receiving intravenous (IV) contrast?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is preparing to discharge a client newly prescribed a progestin-only pill (POP) for contraceptive prevention. Which contraindication associated with POP would the nurse alert the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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