A healthcare professional is educating a patient on asthma. The professional tells the patient that the most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?
Administration of broad spectrum antibiotics
Administration of drugs that decrease airway inflammation
Avoidance of the causative agent
Administration of drugs that reduce bronchospasm
The Correct Answer is C
A. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics: Broad-spectrum antibiotics are not a primary treatment for asthma, as asthma is an inflammatory condition and not primarily caused by bacterial infections. Antibiotics may be used for coexisting infections but are not the most successful initial treatment for chronic asthma.
B. Administration of drugs that decrease airway inflammation: While decreasing airway inflammation is important in managing asthma, the most successful long-term treatment begins with addressing the underlying causes and triggers. Reducing inflammation is part of the treatment strategy but is not the first action.
C. Avoidance of the causative agent: Avoiding the causative agent or trigger of asthma is the most successful initial treatment. Identifying and eliminating exposure to allergens or irritants, such as pollen, smoke, or pet dander, can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma attacks, making it the foundational step in asthma management.
D. Administration of drugs that reduce bronchospasm: Medications that reduce bronchospasm, such as bronchodilators, are essential for immediate relief of asthma symptoms. However, they do not address the underlying inflammation and triggers, making avoidance of causative agents the most successful initial treatment for chronic asthma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Antibody production against the offending fungi is delayed by the patient's age and the virulence of the organism: In older adults, the immune response may be slower or less effective due to age-related changes in the immune system. The virulence of Histoplasma capsulatum can also contribute to the severity of the infection, making it more difficult for the immune system to mount an effective response quickly, which explains the symptoms of fever, nausea, and vomiting.
B. Macrophages are able to remove the offending fungi from the bloodstream but can't destroy them: While macrophages play a crucial role in the immune response to fungi, in the case of histoplasmosis, they often engulf the fungi but may struggle to completely eradicate them, especially in immunocompromised individuals or the elderly. However, this option does not fully explain the delayed symptoms associated with the patient's age and the organism's virulence.
C. Spore inhalation initiates an autoimmune response that produces the associated symptoms: Histoplasmosis is caused by inhaling spores of Histoplasma capsulatum, but the symptoms are not the result of an autoimmune response. Instead, the immune system's attempt to combat the infection leads to the clinical manifestations, not an autoimmune process.
D. Toxin production by Histoplasma capsulatum is triggering an immune response: Histoplasma capsulatum does not produce toxins that directly trigger an immune response. Instead, the immune response is primarily due to the presence of the fungi themselves and the inflammatory response they provoke, which leads to the associated symptoms of the infection.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Myocardial ischemia: Myocardial ischemia contributes to ventricular remodeling by causing damage to the heart muscle, leading to changes in the size, shape, and function of the ventricles. The process involves cellular and molecular alterations in response to ischemic injury, ultimately resulting in adverse remodeling that can exacerbate heart failure.
B. Right ventricular failure: Right ventricular failure may occur as a consequence of other cardiac conditions but is not a direct contributor to ventricular remodeling. Instead, it is often a result of left-sided heart failure or pulmonary hypertension, making it secondary to the primary pathologic changes.
C. Left ventricular hypertrophy: Left ventricular hypertrophy can occur as a response to chronic pressure overload (such as hypertension) but is a result of ventricular remodeling rather than a direct contributor to the remodeling process itself. It may indicate underlying issues rather than cause them.
D. Contractile dysfunction: Contractile dysfunction reflects impaired heart muscle contraction but does not directly cause ventricular remodeling. While it can be a consequence of remodeling due to conditions like ischemia or heart failure, it does not initiate the remodeling process itself.
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