A laboring woman is lying in the supine position.
The most appropriate nursing action at this time is to:.
Ask her to turn to one side.
Elevate her feet and legs.
Take her blood pressure.
Determine whether fetal tachycardia is present.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Ask her to turn to one side. The supine position during labor can compress the vena cava, reducing blood flow to the uterus and potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Turning the woman to her side, especially the left side, can relieve this pressure and improve blood flow to the uterus, ensuring adequate oxygen supply to the fetus. This position change is crucial for the well-being of both the mother and the baby during labor.
Choice B rationale:
Elevate her feet and legs. Elevating the woman's feet and legs might not be effective in relieving the pressure on the vena cava, as it does not change the orientation of the uterus in relation to the vena cava. Turning the woman to her side is a more appropriate and effective action to improve blood flow to the uterus and fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Take her blood pressure. While monitoring the woman's blood pressure is essential during labor, it is not the most appropriate action in this situation. The priority is to relieve the compression of the vena cava by changing the woman's position.
Choice D rationale:
Determine whether fetal tachycardia is present. Monitoring the fetal heart rate is crucial during labor, but the woman's position should be the immediate concern if she is lying in the supine position. Changing her position to relieve the vena cava compression takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygenation to the fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-white spots with a red halo that appear inside the mouth on the buccal mucosa. They are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola). Measles is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by fever, cough, runny nose, and a distinctive red rash. The presence of Koplik's spots is a specific diagnostic feature of measles, making choice A incorrect for this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Koplik's spots are a classic sign of measles (rubeola). These spots typically appear a few days before the onset of the measles rash and are highly indicative of the disease. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets. It is essential to recognize Koplik's spots as they provide an early clue to the diagnosis of measles, enabling healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions and prevent the further spread of the disease.
Choice C rationale:
Chickenpox (varicella) presents with an itchy rash that progresses to fluid-filled blisters. However, Koplik's spots are not associated with chickenpox. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is characterized by a widespread rash, fever, and general discomfort. Koplik's spots are specific to measles and do not occur in chickenpox.
Choice D rationale:
Exanthema subitum, also known as roseola, is a viral illness that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by high fever followed by a rash. However, Koplik's spots are not a feature of roseola. The rash in roseola appears after the fever subsides and is typically pink or red, differentiating it from the small white spots seen in measles.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A"}
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The first dose of the immunization for Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) is typically given at the age of 1 year. This timing is in line with the recommendations from organizations like the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the World Health Organization (WHO). Administering the MMR vaccine at this age ensures early protection against these contagious diseases. Delaying the vaccine could put the child at risk, especially considering the highly infectious nature of measles.
Choice B rationale:
Administering the MMR vaccine at 18 months is not in line with the recommended immunization schedule. Waiting until 18 months might expose the child to the risk of contracting these diseases during the gap period, as maternal immunity wanes after the first few months of life.
Choice C rationale:
Administering the MMR vaccine at 2 years is later than the recommended age. Waiting until 2 years could leave the child vulnerable to these diseases during the time between birth and the administration of the vaccine. Early immunization, starting at 1 year, provides essential protection during this critical period.
Choice D rationale:
Waiting until 4 years to administer the MMR vaccine is not in line with the standard immunization schedule. Delaying the vaccine until 4 years of age leaves the child susceptible to these diseases for a more extended period, which is not recommended for preventing outbreaks and ensuring community immunity. The first dose of the immunization for Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) is given at the age of 2 months.
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