A male client is admitted to the unit with a possible diagnosis of delirium. Which statement by the client's wife best supports the diagnosis?
"This is supposed to happen when you get old, right?”
"Since his mother died, he has not been feeling well.”
"My husband just didn't seem to know what he was doing. He has been forgetful for years.”
"The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn't sure what was happening.”
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
"This is supposed to happen when you get old, right?" is a common misconception but doesn't necessarily support the diagnosis of delirium. It could be attributed to normal aging changes.
Choice B rationale:
"Since his mother died, he has not been feeling well." indicates a potential stressor but doesn't directly address the rapid onset of behavioral changes, which is a hallmark of delirium.
Choice C rationale:
"My husband just didn't seem to know what he was doing. He has been forgetful for years." suggests a history of forgetfulness rather than an acute change in behavior, which is more indicative of chronic cognitive issues like dementia.
Choice D rationale:
(Correct) "The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn't sure what was happening." This statement supports the diagnosis of delirium, which is characterized by a sudden onset of confusion and changes in cognitive function. Delirium often develops rapidly, and the client's wife's observation aligns with this diagnostic criterion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer is d. Situational.
a. Maturational crisis: This type of crisis occurs in response to life transitions or developmental stages, such as marriage, parenthood, retirement, or aging. It involves challenges related to adjusting to new roles, responsibilities, or expectations. However, the client's denial of a new HIV diagnosis and refusal of treatment do not align with the characteristics of a maturational crisis, as it pertains to planned life events rather than unexpected health crises.
b. Adventitious crisis: Adventitious crises are caused by events that are unplanned, unexpected, and often traumatic, such as natural disasters, accidents, or crimes. These crises can affect individuals, families, or communities and may result in significant psychological distress and disruption. However, the client's denial of an HIV diagnosis does not fit the criteria for an adventitious crisis, as it is a personal health issue rather than an external event affecting a broader population.
c. Internal crisis: While internal struggles and conflicts can contribute to a person's overall crisis experience, "internal crisis" is not a recognized category within the context of nursing crises. Internal factors such as psychological distress, unresolved trauma, or maladaptive coping mechanisms may exacerbate crisis situations, but they are typically addressed within the framework of other crisis categories such as situational, maturational, or existential crises.
d. Situational crisis: Correct. A situational crisis arises from an external event or situation that the individual finds overwhelming, threatening, or challenging to cope with. In this scenario, the client's denial of their HIV diagnosis and refusal of treatment represent a situational crisis as it stems from the unexpected news of their health condition. The client's perception of the diagnosis as threatening or inconceivable leads to emotional distress and maladaptive coping mechanisms, which can hinder their ability to accept and manage their medical condition effectively.
In summary, the correct answer is d because the client's denial of their HIV diagnosis and refusal of treatment align with the characteristics of a situational crisis, which arises from an external event that the individual perceives as overwhelming or threatening. Understanding the nature of the crisis can guide the nurse in providing appropriate support, education, and intervention to help the client navigate through this challenging time and make informed decisions regarding their healthcare.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Attempting to talk the client down is the priority action in this situation. Agitation can escalate to aggression or violence if not addressed appropriately. Engaging in therapeutic communication can help de-escalate the client's agitation, express understanding, and potentially find out the underlying cause of their distress. This approach prioritizes a non-pharmacological intervention.
Choice B rationale:
Administer a PRN antianxiety medication. While medication might be a consideration for managing agitation, it's generally not the first action to take. Non-pharmacological interventions, like therapeutic communication, should be attempted first to minimize the reliance on medications to manage behaviors.
Choice C rationale:
Place the client in a monitored seclusion room until he is calm. Placing a client in seclusion should be a last resort and should only be done when there's an immediate risk of harm to the client or others. In this scenario, the client's agitation doesn't seem to present an imminent danger, so seclusion would be an excessive and restrictive intervention.
Choice D rationale:
Restrain the client to prevent injury to himself or others. Restraint should be an absolute last resort and only used when there's an imminent risk of harm that cannot be managed in any other way. Restraint can escalate agitation and trauma for the client, as well as pose legal and ethical concerns. Therefore, it should only be used when all other options have been exhausted and safety is a critical concern.
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