A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit.
Which client is at greatest risk for pressure injury development?
A 44 year old prescribed intravenous antibiotics for pneumonia.
A 26 year old who is bedridden with a fractured leg.
A 65 year old with hemiparesis and incontinence.
A 78 year old requiring assistance to ambulate with a walker.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
The 44-year-old client with pneumonia receiving intravenous antibiotics is at some risk due to potential immobility and fever, which can lead to diaphoresis and skin maceration. However, this client is likely mobile enough to shift positions independently or with minimal assistance, reducing the risk of sustained pressure. The client's age and general health status, aside from the acute infection, suggest good tissue perfusion and skin integrity.
Choice B rationale
A 26-year-old who is bedridden with a fractured leg is at significant risk due to immobility. The inability to shift weight and relieve pressure on bony prominences can lead to ischemia and tissue damage. However, younger individuals generally have better vascular supply, skin turgor, and faster cellular regeneration compared to older adults, which provides some protective physiological advantage against pressure injury development.
Choice C rationale
This 65-year-old client is at the greatest risk due to a combination of multiple risk factors. Hemiparesis leads to immobility and the inability to reposition, causing prolonged pressure on one side of the body. Incontinence exposes the skin to moisture and chemical irritants from urine and feces, leading to maceration and a breakdown of the skin's protective barrier, making it more susceptible to injury.
Choice D rationale
A 78-year-old requiring a walker for ambulation is at a lower risk for pressure injuries compared to a bedridden individual. Although advanced age and the need for assistive devices suggest some mobility limitations, the ability to ambulate, even with assistance, indicates the capacity to shift weight and relieve pressure on a regular basis. This regular movement promotes circulation and prevents prolonged periods of immobility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Abrasive pumice stones should be avoided in peripheral vascular disease. The reduced blood flow and neuropathy in this condition make the skin more fragile and susceptible to injury. Abrasions or small cuts from a pumice stone can lead to non-healing ulcers and serious infections due to poor circulation.
Choice B rationale
Wearing cheap flip-flops is not a good practice. They offer inadequate support and protection. Clients with peripheral vascular disease often have reduced sensation (neuropathy), making them unaware of foot injuries from ill-fitting or unprotected footwear. Properly fitting, supportive shoes are essential for foot protection.
Choice C rationale
Keeping feet dry, especially between the toes, prevents maceration and fungal infections like athlete's foot. In peripheral vascular disease, even minor skin breaks can become entry points for pathogens, leading to severe infections and ulcers that are difficult to heal due to compromised circulation.
Choice D rationale
Applying lotion is beneficial for dry skin but it should not be applied between the toes. Applying lotion between the toes can create a moist environment that promotes fungal growth. Fungal infections can lead to skin breakdown, which is a significant risk for ulceration and infection in clients with poor circulation.
Choice E rationale
Washing feet in room-temperature water is critical for client safety. Clients with peripheral vascular disease often have sensory deficits (neuropathy) and may not be able to accurately perceive temperature. Using hot water could easily cause burns, which in a client with poor circulation can lead to severe, non-healing wounds.
Choice F rationale
Daily inspection of the feet is a cornerstone of self-care for peripheral vascular disease. Clients should be taught to look for any cuts, sores, blisters, or redness. Early detection of these issues allows for prompt intervention before they can progress into serious, difficult-to-treat infections or ulcers.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Certain broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, can alter the gut flora responsible for enterohepatic circulation of estrogens. This disruption can reduce the reabsorption of ethinyl estradiol, the synthetic estrogen in oral contraceptives, from the gut. The decreased serum levels of the hormone may lead to a reduction in the contraceptive's effectiveness, increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy. A backup birth control method should be used.
Choice B rationale
Urinary burning and frequency are more commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) or some sexually transmitted infections, and not a typical side effect of antibiotics used for acne like tetracyclines or minocycline. These symptoms would indicate an inflammatory process in the urinary tract, which is distinct from the mechanism of action and side effect profile of these specific antibiotics.
Choice C rationale
Breast engorgement is a physiological condition often associated with hormonal fluctuations during the postpartum period or premenstrually. It is not a recognized side effect of systemic antibiotics used to treat acne. The mechanism of action of these medications does not involve hormonal pathways that would lead to breast tissue swelling and tenderness.
Choice D rationale
While some antibiotics can predispose to vaginal yeast infections (vaginitis) by disrupting the normal vaginal flora, this is not a side effect of all antibiotics used for acne. The reduction of beneficial lactobacilli can allow for an overgrowth of Candida albicans, leading to symptoms like itching and discharge, which is a known risk with some antibiotic classes but not a universal side effect across all.
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