A nurse in a hospital is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The client is placed on a fetal monitor indicating a regular fetal heart rate of 138/min and no uterine contractions. The client's vital signs are: blood pressure 98/52 mm Hg, heart rate 118/min, respiratory rate 24/min, and temperature 36.4°C (97.6°F). Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Prepare the abdominal and perineal areas.
Witness the signature for informed consent for surgery.
Initiate IV access.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice a) Insert an indwelling urinary catheter is incorrect because this is not a priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can worsen the bleeding and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this action should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
Choice b) Prepare the abdominal and perineal areas is incorrect because this is not a priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. Preparing the abdominal and perineal areas can be done before performing a cesarean section, which is usually the preferred mode of delivery for placenta previa. However, this action should be done after stabilizing the client's condition and obtaining informed consent for surgery.
Choice c) Witness the signature for informed consent for surgery is incorrect because this is not a priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery.
Witnessing the signature for informed consent for surgery can be done before performing a cesarean section, which is usually the preferred mode of delivery for placenta previa. However, this action should be done after stabilizing the client's condition and explaining the risks and benefits of surgery.
Choice d) Initiate IV access is correct because this is the priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. Initiating IV access can help to restore fluid volume, prevent hypovolemic shock, administer medications such as oxytocin or blood products if needed, and prepare for emergency cesarean section if indicated. Therefore, this action should be done as soon as possible to save the life of the mother and the fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a) 100 to 120 is incorrect because this is too low for a normal newborn's heart rate. The heart rate of a newborn is influenced by factors such as gestational age, activity level, temperature, and health status. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which reflects their high metabolic rate and oxygen demand. A heart rate below 100 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, which can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, or cardiac problems.
Choice b) 120 to 160 is correct because this is the normal range for a full-term, quiet, alert newborn's heart rate. The apical pulse is the best way to measure the heart rate of a newborn, as it reflects the actual contractions of the heart. The apical pulse can be auscultated at the fourth intercostal space on the left side of the chest, just below the nipple line. The nurse should count the apical pulse for a full minute, as it may vary with the respiratory cycle.
Choice c) 80 to 100 is incorrect because this is also too low for a normal newborn's heart rate. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which is higher than that of an adult or an older child. A heart rate below 100 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, which can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, or cardiac problems.
Choice d) 150 to 180 is incorrect because this is too high for a normal newborn's heart rate. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which is lower than that of a preterm or a crying newborn. A heart rate above 160 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by fever, infection, anemia, or hyperthyroidism.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a) This could result in profound bleeding is correct because this is the primary reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination involves inserting a gloved finger or a speculum into the vagina and cervix to assess their dilation, effacement, position, and station. This can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can trigger severe hemorrhage and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this explanation is accurate and appropriate.
Choice b) This could initiate preterm labor is incorrect because this is not the main reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may stimulate uterine contractions, which can lead to preterm labor and delivery. However, this is not the most serious or likely complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the bleeding risk is much higher and more urgent. Therefore, this explanation is incomplete and misleading.
Choice c) There is an increased risk of introducing infection is incorrect because this is not a specific reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may introduce bacteria or other microorganisms into the vagina or cervix, which can cause infection and inflammation. However, this is a general risk that applies to any pregnant woman who undergoes an internal examination, not just those who have placenta previa. Therefore, this explanation is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice d) There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes is incorrect because this is not a relevant reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may cause rupture of the membranes, which are the sacs that contain the amniotic fluid and the fetus. However, this is not a significant or common complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the membranes are usually located above or away from the placenta and cervix. Therefore, this explanation is improbable and inaccurate.
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