A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is
Antihypertensive
Anticonvulsant
Tocolytic
Diuretic
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A) Antihypertensive: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Antihypertensives are drugs that lower blood pressure, such as beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. Magnesium sulfate does not have a significant effect on blood pressure, and it is not used as a primary treatment for hypertension in preeclampsia.
Choice B) Anticonvulsant: This is the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Anticonvulsants are drugs that prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of seizures, such as phenytoin, valproic acid, or carbamazepine.
Magnesium sulfate is used as a prophylactic and therapeutic agent for eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts by blocking the neuromuscular transmission and reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm.
Choice C) Tocolytic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Tocolytics are drugs that inhibit uterine contractions and delay preterm labor, such as terbutaline, nifedipine, or indomethacin. Magnesium sulfate is not effective as a tocolytic agent, and it is not recommended for this purpose by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.
Choice D) Diuretic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output and reduce fluid retention, such as furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, or spironolactone. Magnesium sulfate does not have a diuretic effect, and it can cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema if administered in excess.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A) "Oh, don't worry about that. It's okay." is incorrect because this is not a helpful or informative response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not explain what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, why it is there, or how long it will last. It also does not address the father's concern or curiosity, and may make him feel dismissed or ignored. Therefore, this response is inadequate and inappropriate.
Choice B) "That's meconium, which is your baby's first stool. It's normal." is correct because this is a clear and accurate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response explains what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Meconium is a substance that consists of amniotic fluid, mucus, bile, and other waste products that accumulate in the baby's intestines before birth. It is usually passed within the first 24 to 48 hours after birth, and then replaced by transitional or regular stools. Meconium has a dark green or black color and a thick, sticky consistency. It does not have any odor or bacteria. It is normal and harmless for most babies, unless they inhale it during delivery, which can cause breathing problems or infection. Therefore, this response reassures and educates the father about his baby's condition.
Choice C) "That's transitional stool." is incorrect because this is not a true or complete response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not identify what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Transitional stool is a type of stool that appears after meconium and before regular stools. It usually occurs between the second and fifth day after birth, and then changes to yellow or brown stools. Transitional stool has a greenish-brown color and a loose, seedy consistency. It may have some odor or bacteria. It indicates that the baby's digestive system is maturing and adapting to breast milk or formula. Therefore, this response confuses and misleads the father about his baby's condition.
Choice D) "That means your baby is bleeding internally." is incorrect because this is not a valid or appropriate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not describe what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Bleeding internally means that blood vessels are damaged or ruptured inside the body, causing blood loss and shock. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infection, clotting disorder, or medication. Bleeding internally can manifest as blood in the stool, urine, vomit, or saliva. However, it does not cause black, sticky stools like meconium. Moreover, this response scares and alarms the father without any evidence or reason. Therefore, this response is false and unethical.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A) Increased urinary output: This is not a sign of sepsis in newborns. In fact, sepsis can cause reduced urinary output due to poor blood flow to the kidneys and dehydration.
Choice B) Hypothermia: This is a sign of sepsis in newborns. Sepsis can cause changes in temperature, often fever, but sometimes low temperature. Hypothermia can indicate a severe infection that affects the body's ability to regulate its temperature.
Choice C) Wakefulness: This is not a sign of sepsis in newborns. Sepsis can cause reduced activity and lethargy due to inflammation and organ dysfunction.
Choice D) Interest in feeding: This is not a sign of sepsis in newborns. Sepsis can cause reduced sucking and difficulty feeding due to poor appetite, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension.
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