A nurse is administering a medication with a half-life of 6 hours. If the initial dose is 800 mg, how much of the medication will remain in the patient's system after 18 hours?
300 mg
400 mg
200 mg
100 mg
The Correct Answer is D
A. 300mg is incorrect.
B. 400mg is incorrect
C. 200mg is incorrect
D. The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. If the half-life is 6 hours, the amount of drug in the body will halve every 6 hours.
- Initial dose: 800 mg
- After 6 hours (1st half-life): 800 mg ÷ 2 = 400 mg
- After 12 hours (2nd half-life): 400 mg ÷ 2 = 200 mg
- After 18 hours (3rd half-life): 200 mg ÷ 2 = 100 mg
After 18 hours (three half-lives), 100 mg of the medication will remain in the patient's system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Second-generation antihistamines have shorter half-lives and require more frequent dosing compared to first-generation antihistamines: Second-generation antihistamines typically have longer half-lives, allowing once-daily dosing. They are designed for sustained action with improved compliance and fewer side effects.
B. First-generation antihistamines block both histamine and muscarinic receptors, while second-generation antihistamines primarily block histamine receptors: First-generation agents, such as diphenhydramine, cross the blood-brain barrier and exert anticholinergic effects by blocking muscarinic receptors. Second-generation antihistamines are more selective for peripheral H1 receptors, resulting in fewer CNS and anticholinergic side effects.
C. First-generation antihistamines are less likely to cause sedation compared to second-generation antihistamines: First-generation antihistamines are more likely to cause sedation because they easily penetrate the blood-brain barrier and affect central H1 receptors, unlike second-generation agents.
D. Second-generation antihistamines cross the blood-brain barrier, causing significant central nervous system effects: These medications are designed not to cross the blood-brain barrier significantly, which is why they are much less sedating and have minimal CNS effects compared to first-generation antihistamines.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Intramuscular Phenobarbital: While effective as an anticonvulsant, phenobarbital has a slower onset of action and is not the preferred first-line treatment for acute seizures. It is more commonly used in refractory cases or for long-term seizure control.
B. Intravenous Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and the first-line treatment for active seizures, especially status epilepticus. Given IV, it acts quickly by enhancing GABA activity, which calms neuronal excitability and stops seizure activity efficiently.
C. Oral Phenytoin: Phenytoin is used for long-term seizure prevention but is not effective for terminating ongoing seizures due to its slow onset when taken orally. It may be used after benzodiazepines to prevent seizure recurrence but not as the initial agent.
D. Subcutaneous Sumatriptan: Sumatriptan is used for treating acute migraines and has no role in managing seizures. It acts on serotonin receptors to relieve migraine symptoms, not to control abnormal neuronal discharges.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
