A nurse is administering an intermittent enteral feeding through a client's NG tube. During the instillation, the client reports abdominal cramping and nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Replace the NG tube.
Lower the head of the bed to 15°.
Slow the rate of formula instillation.
Chill and readminister the formula.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Replace the NG tube.: There is no indication that the NG tube is malfunctioning or misplaced in this case. The cramping and nausea are more likely related to the feeding itself, not the tube.
B. Lower the head of the bed to 15°.: Lowering the head of the bed would increase the risk of aspiration. The head of the bed should be elevated during enteral feeding to reduce this risk.
C. Slow the rate of formula instillation.: Abdominal cramping and nausea during enteral feeding can occur if the feeding rate is too fast. Slowing the rate allows the stomach to better tolerate the formula and can alleviate symptoms.
D. Chill and readminister the formula.: The temperature of the formula should not cause the cramping or nausea. Feeding should be administered at room temperature or as directed by protocol, and re-chilling it is unlikely to help with the symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "A client who has a sodium level of 140 mEq/L after one episode of diarrhea." This is the correct choice. A sodium level of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range, and the client has had only one episode of diarrhea, suggesting that they are stable and could be safely discharged.
B. "A client who is 3 days postoperative following a hip arthroplasty and has a warm, red area on his left calf." This is a concern. The warm, red area on the calf could indicate the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or infection, both of which require further evaluation and management.
C. "A client who has atrial fibrillation and an INR of 4." This is concerning. An INR of 4 indicates an increased risk of bleeding, which requires closer monitoring and potentially adjusting the anticoagulation therapy before discharge.
D. "A client who reports chest pain after ambulating." This is an urgent issue that needs immediate attention. Chest pain could indicate a serious cardiac event, such as a myocardial infarction, and the client should not be discharged until further evaluation is performed.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Bleach: This is correct. Bleach (sodium hypochlorite. is recommended for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood or other body fluids due to its ability to effectively kill bloodborne pathogens, including HIV, which is crucial in a healthcare setting involving AIDS. The CDC recommends a solution of 1:10 dilution of bleach to water for blood spill clean-up.
B. Isopropyl alcohol: This is incorrect. While isopropyl alcohol can disinfect surfaces, it is not as effective as bleach in killing certain viruses, including HIV, in blood spills. It may not be sufficient for complete disinfection after a blood spill.
C. Chlorhexidine: This is incorrect. Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic commonly used for skin disinfection, not for cleaning contaminated surfaces. It is not recommended for disinfecting blood spills.
D. Hydrogen peroxide: This is incorrect. Hydrogen peroxide can be used for cleaning, but it is not as effective as bleach in eliminating certain pathogens like HIV after a blood spill. It also may not have the broad-spectrum disinfecting power needed for bloodborne pathogens.
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