A nurse is administering timolol eye drops to a client who has glaucoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Protect the distal portion of the eyedropper using clean technique.
Wipe the eye from the outer canthus to the inner canthus before instillation.
Apply pressure to the bridge of the nose after administration.
Drop prescribed amount of medication into the conjunctival sac.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Sterile technique should ideally be used when handling the distal portion of the eyedropper to prevent introducing pathogens into the eye, as the eye is a sensitive area susceptible to infection.
B. When cleaning the eye, it is recommended to wipe from the inner canthus to the outer canthus to avoid bringing contaminants from the outer area closer to the tear duct, which reduces the risk of infection.
C. Applying pressure to the bridge of the nose is ineffective for preventing systemic absorption of the medication. Instead, pressure should be applied to the inner canthus (the nasolacrimal duct area) for about 1-2 minutes after instillation.
D. The correct technique for administering eye drops involves placing the prescribed number of drops into the conjunctival sac, not directly onto the cornea, as this can cause irritation and discomfort. Administering drops into the conjunctival sac allows for better absorption of the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Neuromuscular-blocking agents paralyze the muscles, including the respiratory muscles. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the patient maintains a patent airway and is able to breathe effectively. The nurse should monitor the patient's respiratory rate, depth, and effort, as well as assess for signs of airway obstruction, such as stridor or wheezing.
Skin assessment for rash (option b), blood pressure assessment for orthostatic hypotension (option c), and assessment for fluid volume overload (option d) may also be important assessments for the nurse to obtain, but they are not the most critical assessments when a patient is being treated with a neuromuscular-blocking agent.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that is effective against gram-positive bacteria, particularly against MRSA, which is resistant to other antibiotics like methicillin. It is not effective against gram-negative bacteria such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Klebsiella. Candida is a fungal infection and is not treated with vancomycin. Therefore, in this educational program, the nurse manager should emphasize that vancomycin is indicated for the treatment of infections caused by MRSA.
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