A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive vaginal bleeding. The nurse speaks a different language than the client. The client's partner and 10-year-old child are accompanying her. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to gather the client's admission data?
Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate.
Allow the client's partner to translate.
Request a female interpreter through the facility.
Have the client's child translate.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate: This is not appropriate, as the nursing student may not be trained in medical terminology or confidentiality, which could lead to miscommunication and potential breaches of privacy.
B. Allow the client's partner to translate: While the partner may understand the language, this approach can create conflicts of interest, and they may not be able to convey the full medical context or sensitive information accurately.
C. Request a female interpreter through the facility: This is the best action. Using a trained, professional interpreter ensures that the communication is accurate and confidential, allowing the nurse to gather necessary admission data effectively while respecting the client's comfort and cultural needs.
D. Have the client's child translate: It is not appropriate to involve a child in medical discussions, as they may not fully understand the context or terminology and could feel overwhelmed by the responsibility.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) "Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate.": An increase in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) indicates inflammation or the presence of disease but does not reflect a response to epoetin alfa, which aims to increase red blood cell production.
B) "Increased neutrophil count.": Epoetin alfa primarily stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) and does not significantly affect neutrophil counts. Therefore, an increased neutrophil count is not a relevant therapeutic response.
C) "Increased platelet count.": Epoetin alfa is not directly aimed at increasing platelet counts. While it can have some indirect effects on platelets due to increased hematocrit, a higher platelet count alone does not indicate a therapeutic response to this medication.
D) "Increased hemoglobin level.": An increased hemoglobin level is the primary therapeutic target of epoetin alfa. This medication is used to treat anemia, particularly in patients with chronic kidney disease or those undergoing chemotherapy, by stimulating the production of red blood cells and thus raising hemoglobin levels.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Fetal anemia:Fetal anemia typically causes tachycardia (increased heart rate) rather than bradycardia (decreased heart rate). It is not a common cause of fetal bradycardia.
B) Maternal hypoglycemia:Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased glucose availability for the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. It is important to monitor and manage maternal blood glucose levels to ensure adequate fetal oxygenation and prevent bradycardia.
C) Chorioamnionitis:Chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid and membranes, usually causes fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia. It is associated with an increased fetal heart rate due to the inflammatory response.
D) Maternal fever:Maternal fever is more likely to cause fetal tachycardia due to the increased metabolic rate and oxygen demand. It is not typically associated with fetal bradycardia.
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