A nurse is planning to administer vancomycin IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of an adverse reaction to the vancomycin?
Give the dose over 60 min.
Administer the medication undiluted.
Inject 19% lidocaine prior to each dose.
Obtain a trough level 30 min after the medication infusion.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Administering vancomycin over a longer infusion time, such as 60 minutes, can help reduce the risk of adverse reactions, such as red man syndrome or nephrotoxicity. Slower infusion rates allow for better tolerance of the medication.
B. Vancomycin should be diluted appropriately before administration to reduce the risk of infusion-related reactions.
C. Lidocaine is not typically used prior to vancomycin administration. The use of lidocaine would be more relevant for local anesthesia, not for systemic medication administration like vancomycin.
D. Trough levels are typically obtained just before the next dose of vancomycin is due, not immediately after the infusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A: This could be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention due to its potential to cause high blood pressure, proteinuria, and seizures, affecting both the mother and fetus.
B: Urinary frequency is common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the bladder from the growing uterus; it's not typically a concern unless accompanied by pain or other symptoms.
C: Faintness upon rising can be related to changes in blood pressure or blood volume during pregnancy, but it's not specific to the second trimester and is often transient.This can often be managed with lifestyle modifications such as rising slowly, staying hydrated, and avoiding prolonged standing.
D: Bleeding gums are also a common symptom due to hormonal changes increasing blood flow to the gums, and while it should be monitored, it is not typically a cause for alarm unless accompanied by other symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Clonazepam. While also a benzodiazepine, it is not typically the first choice for immediate management of status epilepticus.
B. Carbamazepine. Used for chronic management of seizures, not for acute seizure episodes like status epilepticus.
C. Lamotrigine. Also used for long-term seizure management and not suitable for acute intervention in status epilepticus.
D. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used as a first-line treatment for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action and efficacy in stopping seizures quickly.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
