A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Red man syndrome
Hypotension
Hypoglycemia
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Red man syndrome is associated with vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Choice B rationale:
Hypotension, or low blood pressure, can be an adverse effect of phenytoin.
Choice C rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of phenytoin.
Choice D rationale:
Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Morphine tablet is not likely to provide rapid relief within 1 hour for moderate to severe pain.
Choice B rationale:
Fentanyl transmucosa, such as a fentanyl lozenge or transmucosal patch, is a strong opioid analgesic that can provide rapid relief for breakthrough pain.
Choice C rationale:
A lidocaine patch is typically used for localized pain relief and might not provide the desired level of relief for systemic pain.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It would not be appropriate to administer naloxone in this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A) Alcohol use disorder is a contraindication for acetaminophen due to the increased risk of liver damage, especially in the case of chronic alcoholism or liver diseases.
- B) Chronic kidney disease is not an absolute contraindication but requires caution. Dosing intervals may need to be adjusted due to altered excretion.
- C) Receiving a Hepatitis B vaccine within the last week is not a contraindication for acetaminophen.
- D) Diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for acetaminophen. Patients with diabetes should be aware of sugar content in liquid formulations, but it does not preclude the use of the medication.
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