A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?

Dark hair

Female gender

History of chronic skin irritation

Age 19 to 30 years

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason:
Dark hair is not a recognized risk factor for developing malignant melanoma. Melanoma is more commonly associated with individuals having fair skin, light hair, and light-colored eyes because they have less melanin to protect their skin from UV radiation.

Choice B reason:
While female gender is not a direct risk factor for malignant melanoma, it is important to note that melanoma rates can vary between genders at different ages. Generally, before age 50, melanoma rates are higher in women, but by age 65, rates are twice as high in men.

Choice C reason:
A history of chronic skin irritation or inflammation can potentially increase the risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma. Chronic inflammation can lead to DNA damage and contribute to the development of cancerous cells.

Choice D reason:
Age 19 to 30 years is not considered a high-risk age group for malignant melanoma. The risk of melanoma increases with age, and it is most frequently diagnosed in older adults, although it is not uncommon in younger people.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
The lack of insulin production by the pancreas is related to diabetes mellitus, not Addison's disease. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels, and its deficiency leads to diabetes, not Addison's disease.

Choice B reason:
The overproduction of growth hormone by the pituitary gland leads to conditions such as acromegaly or gigantism, depending on the age at which the hormone levels become elevated. It is not related to Addison's disease, which involves the adrenal glands, not the pituitary gland.

Choice C reason:
The overproduction of parathormone by the parathyroid glands leads to hyperparathyroidism, which can cause a variety of symptoms including bone pain, kidney stones, and abdominal pain. This condition is not related to Addison's disease.

Choice D reason:
Addison's disease is indeed caused by the lack of production of hormones by the adrenal glands, particularly cortisol and aldosterone. Aldosterone helps to maintain blood pressure and the balance of sodium and potassium in the blood. When the adrenal glands do not produce enough aldosterone, it can lead to symptoms such as low blood pressure and salt cravings, which are characteristic of Addison's disease.

A. The client should receive an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent. B. The client should receive a diet with increased protein. C. The client has an increased risk of infection. D. The client has an increased risk for bleeding.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: The use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) is indicated for anemia due to chemotherapy¹. However, the client's hemoglobin (Hgb) level is 12.1 g/dL, which is within the normal range (normal: 12-15.5 g/dL for women). Therefore, administering an ESA is not indicated based on the Hgb level provided.

Choice B reason: A diet with increased protein can be beneficial for patients undergoing chemotherapy as it helps in tissue repair and immune system function. However, the client's albumin level is 4.5 g/dL, which falls within the normal range (normal: 3.4-5.4 g/dL), suggesting adequate protein intake. Thus, there is no indication that the client requires an increased protein diet based on the albumin level provided.

Choice C reason: The client's white blood cell (WBC) count is 1,400/mm³, which is below the normal range (normal: 4,500-11,000/mm³). This condition, known as leukopenia, significantly increases the risk of infection³. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for signs of infection and implementing infection control measures.

Choice D reason: The client's platelet count is 170,000/mm³, which is within the normal range (normal: 150,000-450,000/mm³). Although cisplatin can cause thrombocytopenia, the current platelet count does not indicate an increased risk for bleeding⁴. Therefore, this choice is not correct based on the platelet count provided.

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A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A staff nurse is teaching a client who has Addison's disease about the disease process. The client asks the nurse what causes Addison's disease. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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