A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?
Dark hair
Female gender
History of chronic skin irritation
Age 19 to 30 years
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Dark hair is not a recognized risk factor for developing malignant melanoma. Melanoma is more commonly associated with individuals having fair skin, light hair, and light-colored eyes because they have less melanin to protect their skin from UV radiation.
Choice B reason:
While female gender is not a direct risk factor for malignant melanoma, it is important to note that melanoma rates can vary between genders at different ages. Generally, before age 50, melanoma rates are higher in women, but by age 65, rates are twice as high in men.
Choice C reason:
A history of chronic skin irritation or inflammation can potentially increase the risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma. Chronic inflammation can lead to DNA damage and contribute to the development of cancerous cells.
Choice D reason:
Age 19 to 30 years is not considered a high-risk age group for malignant melanoma. The risk of melanoma increases with age, and it is most frequently diagnosed in older adults, although it is not uncommon in younger people.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
While gargling with warm saline can provide symptomatic relief for a sore throat, it does not address the underlying bacterial infection. Therefore, it is not the priority action once a diagnosis of group A streptococcus has been confirmed.
Choice B reason:
Identifying close contacts is important for public health tracking and potentially preventing the spread of the infection. However, the immediate priority for the client is the initiation of treatment to address the infection.
Choice C reason:
Taking antipyretics can help manage fever and provide comfort to the client. While managing symptoms is important, it is secondary to initiating antibiotic therapy, which addresses the cause of the symptoms.
Choice D reason:
The priority action is to notify the client to return to the clinic for initiation of antibiotic therapy. Group A streptococcus is a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics for treatment. Prompt initiation of antibiotics is crucial to prevent complications and promote recovery.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Malignant melanoma typically presents as a mole that changes in color, size, or feel and has irregular edges. It may also itch, ooze, or bleed. A raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders is not characteristic of malignant melanoma.
Choice B reason:
Basal cell carcinoma often appears as a raised, pearly bump, sometimes with visible blood vessels, which may have a central depression. The description of the lesion as raised, flesh-colored with pearly white borders aligns with the common presentation of basal cell carcinoma.
Choice C reason:
Squamous cell carcinoma usually presents as a firm, red nodule, or a flat lesion with a scaly, crusted surface. The lesion described does not match the typical appearance of squamous cell carcinoma.
Choice D reason:
Actinic keratosis is characterized by rough, scaly patches on sun-exposed areas of the skin, which may be precancerous. They are not typically described as raised, flesh-colored lesions with pearly borders.
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