A nurse is assessing a client who has a long history of smoking and suspected of having laryngeal cancer. The nurse should anticipate that the client will report that her earliest manifestation was
hoarseness.
dysphagia.
weight loss.
dyspnea.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Hoarseness or changes in voice quality is one of the hallmark symptoms of laryngeal cancer. It occurs due to the tumor affecting the vocal cords or surrounding structures. Hoarseness is often persistent and does not resolve with voice rest or usual treatments for laryngitis.
B. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can occur in laryngeal cancer, especially if the tumor affects the structures involved in swallowing. However, dysphagia typically occurs later in the course of the disease as the tumor grows and obstructs the passage of food or liquids.
C. Weight loss can be a symptom of advanced laryngeal cancer but is less commonly reported as an early manifestation. Significant weight loss may occur as a result of difficulty eating due to dysphagia or as a generalized effect of cancer on the body.
D. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is not typically an early manifestation of laryngeal cancer unless the tumor is large and obstructs the airway. It is more commonly associated with advanced disease or tumors that have spread to nearby structures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used in the management of alcohol withdrawal syndrome. Benzodiazepines are effective in reducing symptoms such as anxiety, tremors, agitation, and preventing seizures that can occur during alcohol withdrawal. Diazepam is preferred due to its rapid onset and long duration of action, which helps stabilize the client during withdrawal.
B. Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist typically used in the treatment of opioid dependence, not alcohol withdrawal. It is not recommended as a first-line medication for alcohol withdrawal management.
C. Disulfiram is used as an aversive therapy in the treatment of alcohol use disorder. It works by causing unpleasant symptoms (such as nausea, vomiting, palpitations) if the client consumes alcohol. It is not indicated for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
D. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist primarily used for the treatment of opioid dependence and chronic pain management. It has no role in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal and is not appropriate for managing symptoms associated with alcohol withdrawal.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Notifying the laboratory is not the first action to take in this situation. While it's important to inform the laboratory about suspected transfusion reactions for further investigation and documentation, immediate patient care takes precedence to ensure the client's safety.
B. This is the correct action to take first. Stopping the infusion of blood is crucial to prevent further administration of the potentially harmful blood product. Suspecting an acute hemolytic reaction (symptoms like chills, back pain, and hypotension) necessitates immediate cessation of the transfusion to minimize complications.
C. Obtaining a urine specimen may be indicated later to assess for hemolysis and kidney function, but it is not the first action to take. The priority is to stop the transfusion and assess the client's condition to manage the suspected transfusion reaction.
D. While it's important to notify the provider promptly, stopping the transfusion (option B) is the first critical action to take in response to suspected acute transfusion reactions. The provider will need to be informed for further orders and management, but immediate cessation of the transfusion is essential to prevent worsening of the client's condition.
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