A nurse is assessing a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion.
Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to suspect magnesium toxicity?
Respiratory rate 10/min
Urine output 40 mL/hr
Patellar reflex 2+
Serum magnesium level 4.5 mEq/L
The Correct Answer is A
Respiratory rate 10/min. This indicates muscle weakness and difficulty breathing, which are symptoms of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is a medication that can cause magnesium overdose if given in excess or if the patient has impaired kidney function.
Choice B. Urine output 40 mL/hr is wrong because this is within the normal range for urine output, which is 30 to 50 mL/hr. Urine output may decrease in severe cases of magnesium toxicity due to urine retention.
Choice C. Patellar reflex 2+ is wrong because this is a normal finding for the knee-jerk reflex. A low or absent patellar reflex may indicate magnesium toxicity, as it reflects muscle weakness and nerve dysfunction.
Choice D. Serum magnesium level 4.5 mEq/L is wrong because this is within the normal range for serum magnesium, which is 1.7 to 2.3 mEq/L. Serum magnesium levels above 2.6 mEq/L can indicate hypermagnesemia or magnesium overdose.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Epigastric pain and nausea.This is because epigastric pain and nausea are signs of severe preeclampsia that indicate liver involvement and possible hepatic rupture.
This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Choice A is wrong because contractions lasting 90 seconds and occurring every 2 minutes are normal during labor induction with oxytocin and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because fetal heart rate baseline of 140/min with moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because cervical dilation of 4 cm and effacement of 50% are normal findings during labor induction and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Labetalol is an antihypertensive drug that can lower blood pressure in pregnant women with preeclampsia.Preeclampsia is a condition that causes high blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine is not recommended as a first-line treatment for preeclampsia due to its potential adverse effects on maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B is wrong because nifedipine is not licensed for use in pregnancy and may interact with magnesium sulfate, which is an anticonvulsant medication used to prevent or treat seizures in severe preeclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because methyldopa is not effective for acute blood pressure control and may cause adverse effects such as depression, sedation, and hemolytic anemia.
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