A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who gave birth 1 hour ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe?

Magnesium sulfate.

Tranexamic acid.

Betamethasone.

Terbutaline.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is used to manage preeclampsia and prevent seizures, not for treating postpartum hemorrhage. It does not address the causes of excessive vaginal bleeding post-birth.

Choice B rationale

Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent that helps reduce bleeding by preventing the breakdown of blood clots, making it suitable for managing postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice C rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to mature fetal lungs in preterm labor, not for treating postpartum hemorrhage. It has no role in managing excessive bleeding after birth.

Choice D rationale

Terbutaline is a tocolytic used to delay preterm labor by relaxing uterine muscles. It is not used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and excessive vaginal bleeding.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Recessive disorders do not manifest in every subsequent generation. They appear only when an individual inherits two copies of the recessive gene, one from each parent, making them less frequent in the population.

Choice B rationale

Single gene disorders are not collectively prevalent; they are relatively rare. They are caused by mutations in a single gene and are not always detectable without specific genetic testing.

Choice C rationale

Genetic disorders are not always passed down from one's biological predecessors. Some genetic disorders arise from new mutations that occur during the formation of eggs or sperm, or early in embryonic development.

Choice D rationale

Single gene disorders can indeed be traced through genetic lineage. By analyzing family histories and genetic testing, these disorders can often be identified and tracked across generations.

A. Prepare for cesarean birth. B. Request the RN perform a cervical examination. C. Initiate an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. D. Administer antibiotics.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Heavy vaginal bleeding at 39 weeks of gestation could be due to placental abruption or placenta previa, which necessitates immediate delivery to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Preparing for cesarean birth is crucial as it allows rapid delivery, reducing the risk of maternal hemorrhage and fetal hypoxia.

Choice B rationale

Performing a cervical examination can exacerbate bleeding in cases of placenta previa or placental abruption, making it unsafe. It can disturb the placenta and lead to further complications, so this option is not recommended.

Choice C rationale

Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia, not for managing heavy vaginal bleeding. Its use is unrelated to the immediate care of a client with heavy vaginal bleeding due to suspected placental issues.

Choice D rationale

Administering antibiotics is not the immediate priority in the case of heavy vaginal bleeding at 39 weeks of gestation. The focus should be on stabilizing the mother and preparing for delivery.

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A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who gave birth 1 hour ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who gave birth 1 hour ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe?