A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who has preeclampsia with severe features and is reporting blurred vision and the inability to think clearly.
Which of the following factors should the nurse recognize as the primary cause of the client's clinical manifestations?
Platelet aggregation.
Autoregulation dysfunction of the cerebral vasculature.
Oxidative stress inflammatory response.
Uteroplacental ischemia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Platelet aggregation is associated with the formation of blood clots, which may contribute to complications like stroke but is not the primary cause of the client's symptoms of blurred vision and cognitive impairment in preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Autoregulation dysfunction of the cerebral vasculature causes increased cerebral blood flow and edema, leading to neurological symptoms such as blurred vision and impaired cognitive function. This dysfunction is a primary factor in the pathophysiology of preeclampsia with severe features.
Choice C rationale
Oxidative stress and inflammatory response contribute to endothelial dysfunction in preeclampsia but are not directly responsible for the neurological symptoms described. These factors play a broader role in the progression of the disease.
Choice D rationale
Uteroplacental ischemia affects the placenta and fetal environment, contributing to fetal growth restriction and distress but does not directly cause neurological symptoms like blurred vision in the mother.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A BMI of 28 is considered overweight, which can be a risk factor for preeclampsia but is not as strong an indicator as gestational hypertension. BMI alone does not automatically place someone at high risk.
Choice B rationale
Age of 24 is within the typical childbearing age range and is not considered a high-risk factor for preeclampsia. Extremes of maternal age (below 18 or above 35) are more significant risk factors.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension is a significant risk factor for developing preeclampsia. It indicates elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which can lead to preeclampsia if not managed properly.
Choice D rationale
Gravida 3 Para 2 indicates a woman who has had two previous pregnancies carried to viable gestational age. While multiparity can influence pregnancy outcomes, it is not a direct high-risk factor for preeclampsia like gestational hypertension is. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The client will be positioned in a prone position is incorrect because the prone position is not used for fetal anatomy ultrasounds.
Choice B rationale
The ultrasound will occur at 13 weeks of gestation is incorrect as the typical timing for a detailed fetal anatomy scan is around 18-22 weeks of gestation, not 13 weeks.
Choice C rationale
The ultrasound will be transvaginal is incorrect because at 20 weeks of gestation, a transabdominal ultrasound is more commonly used rather than a transvaginal one.
Choice D rationale
The client must have a full bladder is correct because a full bladder helps lift the uterus out of the pelvis, providing a clearer view during the ultrasound.
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