A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic effect medication?

A) Rubella titer nonimmune: A nonimmune rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella, which is a common finding in many pregnant women. However, rubella vaccination is not given during pregnancy because the vaccine is a live virus. The client will typically be vaccinated postpartum. Follow-up would be required, but it is not an urgent concern during the pregnancy itself.

B) Negative varicella titer: A negative varicella titer means the client is not immune to chickenpox, which is a concern because varicella can cause serious complications during pregnancy. However, similar to rubella, the varicella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy, and vaccination would be given postpartum. This requires follow-up after delivery but does not require urgent intervention during the pregnancy.

C) Positive Rh factor: The Rh factor is a blood type characteristic, but what is typically more concerning is the Rh incompatibility, which occurs when a Rh-negative mother carries a Rh-positive baby. A positive Rh factor is not a problem for the client themselves but could be important if the father is Rh-positive. If there is concern for Rh incompatibility, the nurse would monitor for the development of Rh sensitization and administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) if needed. This does not require urgent intervention unless Rh incompatibility is confirmed.

D) Positive serologic test for syphilis: A positive test for syphilis requires immediate follow-up intervention. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause serious complications during pregnancy, including miscarriage, stillbirth, preterm birth, and congenital syphilis. Treatment with penicillin is recommended to prevent transmission to the baby and to treat the infection in the mother. A positive serologic test for syphilis warrants prompt intervention.

A) Staff members used a class A fire extinguisher during an electrical fire.
This response indicates that the safety plan is effective because it shows that the staff used the correct type of fire extinguisher for the fire they encountered. Class A fire extinguishers are designed for ordinary combustibles (e.g., wood, paper, cloth), but using a fire extinguisher that is correctly suited to the fire type demonstrates that the staff are trained and prepared to respond appropriately in an emergency. For electrical fires, however, a Class C fire extinguisher should be used. This suggests a review of fire safety plan training might be necessary to align fire extinguisher types with fire classes.

B) Staff members review the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years.
Reviewing the locations of fire extinguishers every 2 to 3 years is not an adequate frequency. Fire safety protocols should be reviewed more frequently to ensure that staff are consistently aware of fire extinguisher locations. Routine and more frequent checks (e.g., annually) are required to ensure proper preparedness in an emergency.

C) An evacuation was ordered during a fire when fire extinguishers were not effective.
While evacuations are necessary in certain situations, an evacuation being ordered because fire extinguishers were ineffective could indicate that the safety plan was not properly executed or that there was an issue with fire extinguisher maintenance or staff training. The effectiveness of fire safety plans should reduce the need for evacuations due to inadequate response efforts.

D) Fire alarms in the facility have the same sound as other alarms.
Fire alarms should have a distinct sound that differentiates them from other types of alarms (e.g., medical or security alarms). If fire alarms have the same sound as other alarms, it could create confusion in an emergency, undermining the effectiveness of the safety plan. The alarm system should be unique and easily identifiable.