A nurse is assisting in the care of a toddler.
A nurse is assisting in the care of a client. Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The nurse should first address the child's
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
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Immediate priority: The child is febrile (38.9°C) with tachycardia. Fever and low Hgb and platelets suggest possible serious underlying hematologic disorder (e.g., leukemia, bone marrow suppression). Infection is life-threatening in this context. So temperature (fever) should be addressed first.
Next concern: The lab values (low Hgb, Hct, platelets) show significant hematologic abnormalities that explain the fatigue, bruising, and petechiae and will guide further treatment (possible transfusion, infection risk management).
Incorrect answers:
- Pain: Although pain management is important for comfort and to improve quality of life, in this scenario, the child’s pain is rated as a 3 on the FLACC scale, which is moderate. Immediate pain does not seem to be the primary or most urgent concern compared to the high fever and potential underlying conditions.
- Bruising: The presence of bruising in various stages of healing and petechiae suggests a possible underlying hematologic issue or trauma. While concerning and needing further investigation, it does not require immediate intervention compared to the fever.
- Heart rate: The heart rate is elevated at 150 beats per minute, which could be a response to the fever, pain, or anxiety. Addressing the fever may help in normalizing the heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Diarrhea: Diarrhea is not a typical finding associated with Wilms' tumor.
B. Swollen joints: Swollen joints are not associated with Wilms' tumor and would suggest a different condition.
C. Abdominal mass: Wilms' tumor typically presents with an asymptomatic abdominal mass that may be firm, non-tender, and palpable.
D. Jaundice: Jaundice is not typically associated with Wilms' tumor and would suggest liver dysfunction or another underlying cause.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Maculopapular lesions behind the ears: Maculopapular lesions are not characteristic of head lice infestation.
B. White sacs attached to the hair shafts in the occipital area: White sacs (nits) attached to hair shafts are characteristic of head lice infestation.
C. White flaky particles throughout the entire scalp region: White flaky particles are more suggestive of dry scalp or dandruff, not head lice.
D. Lesions in the scalp that extend to the hairline or neck: Lesions extending to the hairline or neck could indicate secondary infection but are not specific to head lice infestation.
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