A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is in labor with ruptured membranes and has herpes simplex virus with active lesions.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Begin an amnioinfusion for the client.
Prepare the client for a cesarean birth.
Administer ampicillin IV to the client.
Initiate an oxytocin infusion for the client.
The Correct Answer is B
Prepare the client for a cesarean birth.
This is because the client has herpes simplex virus with active lesions, which can be transmitted to the newborn during vaginal delivery and cause serious complications such as neonatal herpes infection. A cesarean birth can prevent this transmission and protect the newborn’s health.
Choice A is wrong because an amnioinfusion is a procedure that involves infusing fluid into the amniotic cavity to increase the volume of amniotic fluid and reduce cord compression.
It is not indicated for a client with herpes simplex virus with active lesions.
Choice C is wrong because ampicillin is an antibiotic that is used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections such as herpes simplex virus.
Ampicillin will not prevent the transmission of herpes simplex virus to the newborn.
Choice D is wrong because oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and can be used to augment or induce labor.
It is not indicated for a client with herpes simplex virus with active lesions, as it can increase the risk of transmission to the newborn by prolonging the exposure to infected genital secretions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is a manifestation of a fat embolism, which is a condition where particles of fat get into the bloodstream and block blood flow. A fat embolism can occur after trauma or surgery to the legs, when fat from the bone marrow escapes into the bloodstream.
Choice A is wrong because a report of pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 is not specific to a fat embolism.
Pain is a common symptom of many conditions and injuries.
Choice B is wrong because pulses 2+ distal to the client’s fracture are normal and indicate adequate blood flow to the extremity.
Choice D is wrong because bruising around the fracture site is an expected finding after a compound fracture and does not indicate a fat embolism.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg and for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute.
Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin.
They can range in size from pinpoint to several millimeters. Fat embolism syndrome (FES) is a serious complication of a fat embolism that affects the lungs, skin or brain and can be fatal. FES usually occurs 12 to 72 hours after trauma.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A bone scan that is scheduled for today. The nurse should include this information in the change-of-shift report because the oncoming nurse might have to modify the client’s care to accommodate leaving the unit.
Choice A is wrong because the client’s input and output for the shift are routine data that can be found in the client’s chart and do not need to be verbally reported.
Choice B is wrong because the client’s blood pressure from the previous day is not relevant to the current condition of the client and does not reflect any changes or interventions.
Choice D is wrong because the medication routine from the medication administration record is also routine data that can be accessed by the oncoming nurse and does not indicate any special needs or concerns.
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