A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is pregnant.

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is meet likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to determine the client's progress.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is []

Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth: Emergency cesarean delivery is indicated in cases of fetal distress or placenta previa with severe bleeding at term. In a hydatidiform mole, there is no viable fetus, and the priority is evacuation of the molar tissue rather than delivery by cesarean section.
Prepare the client for suction curettage: Suction curettage is the treatment of choice for a hydatidiform mole. It allows for the complete evacuation of abnormal trophoblastic tissue, preventing complications such as severe hemorrhage and progression to malignant gestational trophoblastic disease.
Anticipate a prescription for methotrexate: Methotrexate is primarily used to treat ectopic pregnancies or persistent gestational trophoblastic disease after a molar pregnancy, not for initial management. Immediate evacuation of the mole by suction curettage is the first-line intervention for this client.
Remind the client that weekly blood tests are needed to measure pregnancy hormone: Following a molar pregnancy, weekly beta-hCG tests are critical to monitor for residual trophoblastic tissue or the development of choriocarcinoma. A declining beta-hCG confirms the resolution of disease, while a plateau or rise indicates persistent disease.
Administer terbutaline: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus in cases of preterm labor. In the case of a hydatidiform mole, uterine evacuation is necessary rather than uterine relaxation, making terbutaline inappropriate for this situation.
Vaginal bleeding: Clients with a hydatidiform mole are at risk for significant vaginal bleeding due to the abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue. Monitoring the amount and type of vaginal bleeding helps detect hemorrhage or retained molar tissue requiring urgent intervention.
Blood pressure: Elevated blood pressure is a potential complication of hydatidiform mole, similar to preeclampsia, and can occur even in the first or second trimester. Regular monitoring of blood pressure is essential to detect worsening hypertensive symptoms early.
Uterus for hypertonicity: Hypertonicity of the uterus is typically monitored in cases of labor or uterine rupture concerns. In a hydatidiform mole, the uterus is distended by abnormal tissue but hypertonicity is not a primary concern needing monitoring in this condition.
Unilateral pelvic pain: Unilateral pelvic pain is more characteristic of ectopic pregnancy rather than a molar pregnancy. In hydatidiform mole, generalized uterine enlargement and discomfort are more typical, so unilateral pelvic pain is not a focus for this client.
Cervical dilation per provider: Cervical dilation is not the main indicator of progress or concern with a molar pregnancy. The focus is on removing molar tissue and monitoring beta-hCG levels, not on the progress of cervical changes like in labor.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Allergy to penicillins: Penicillin allergies are important when prescribing beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin, but azithromycin is not a penicillin; it belongs to the macrolide class, so this allergy is not directly relevant.

B. Allergy to macrolides: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic. An allergy to macrolides must be reported immediately because administering azithromycin could trigger an allergic reaction, which could be serious or life-threatening.

C. Allergy to sulfonamides: Sulfonamide allergies are relevant when prescribing medications like sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim, but azithromycin does not belong to the sulfonamide class.

D. Allergy to tetracyclines: Tetracyclines are a different class of antibiotics, used for infections such as acne or certain respiratory infections. An allergy to tetracyclines is not a concern when administering azithromycin.

A. Deep tendon patellar reflex B. Blood pressure C. Heart rate D. Edema

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

Deep tendon patellar reflex: The client's deep tendon reflexes improved from being hyperreflexive at 4+ to normal at 2+ without clonus on Day 2. This is a positive sign because hyperreflexia increases seizure risk in preeclampsia, and normalization indicates stabilization of neurological irritability.
Blood pressure: Although still elevated, the blood pressure decreased from 166/110 mm Hg to 152/90 mm Hg by Day 2. While not normal yet, the trend toward lower values represents improvement in controlling the severe hypertension associated with preeclampsia.
Heart rate: The client's heart rate increased slightly from 72/min to 90/min. While still within normal range, this change reflects a more responsive and stable cardiovascular status, and there are no signs of bradycardia or distress, supporting mild improvement.
Edema: The client continues to have +3 pitting edema bilaterally, with no reported reduction compared to the initial assessment. Persistent severe edema suggests that fluid balance issues from preeclampsia have not yet improved and still require active management.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a health clinic is assisting in the care of a client diagnosed with chlamydia. The client was prescribed azithromycin 1 g PO once. Which of following allergy findings in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is continuing to assist with the care of the client. For each finding, click to specify if the finding indicates that the client's condition has improved or has not changed.

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

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