A nurse is caring for a 38-year-old client who presents to the emergency department (ED) in pain.
For each potential healthcare provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.
Intravenous fluid administration
Ice packs to affected area 15 min on/15 min off
Ambulation in hallway with supervision
Hydromorphone intravenously (IV) for pain
Acetaminophen orally (PO) for pain
Oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Intravenous fluid administration is anticipated as hydration can help reduce the viscosity of sickled cells, improving circulation and potentially reducing vaso-occlusive events.
Ice packs to the affected area are nonessential and could potentially be contraindicated, as cold can cause vasoconstriction and may exacerbate pain.
Ambulation is nonessential during acute pain episodes and should be encouraged when the patient is comfortable and pain is controlled.
Hydromorphone IV for pain is anticipated because it is a stronger opioid than morphine and may be necessary if the pain is unresponsive to oral morphine sulfate.
Acetaminophen PO for pain is nonessential in this scenario as it is unlikely to provide adequate pain relief for severe vaso-occlusive pain.
Oxygen therapy is nonessential given the client's SpO2 is 95% on room air, indicating adequate oxygen saturation; however, it may be considered if there is evidence of hypoxia or respiratory distress. It is crucial to monitor the client's response to pain management interventions and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. DKA occurs due to a significant deficiency of insulin rather than issues with cell response to insulin. The condition leads to high blood glucose and ketone production because there is not enough insulin to regulate glucose levels effectively.
B. DKA is primarily associated with diabetes mellitus type 1, not type 2. It can occur due to a lack of insulin and is not solely caused by illness, although illness can exacerbate it.
C. DKA is not limited to clients with diabetes mellitus type 1 who experience septic shock. It can occur in anyone with type 1 diabetes due to severe insulin deficiency, though septic shock can complicate the condition.
D. DKA results from a complete absence of insulin, which is characteristic of poorly controlled or undiagnosed diabetes mellitus type 1. This insulin deficiency leads to elevated blood glucose levels and ketone formation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An HbA1c level of 7.5% indicates suboptimal long-term glucose control. The target for many diabetic patients is usually below 7%, but it may not require immediate action compared to more acute indicators.
B. A 2-hour post-prandial blood glucose level of 122 mg/dL is slightly above the normal range but not significantly high. This result alone is not as indicative of inadequate control as other values.
C. A random blood glucose level of 300 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates poor glucose control. This value is much higher than the normal range and suggests a need for further teaching and adjustment of diabetes management.
D. A fasting blood glucose level of 48 mg/dL is low and could indicate hypoglycemia rather than inadequate control. This level requires immediate attention but does not reflect poor long-term diabetes management.
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