A nurse is caring for a 38-year-old client who presents to the emergency department (ED) in pain.

Exhibits

For each potential healthcare provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.

Intravenous fluid administration

Ice packs to affected area 15 min on/15 min off

Ambulation in hallway with supervision

Hydromorphone intravenously (IV) for pain

Acetaminophen orally (PO) for pain

Oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}

Intravenous fluid administration is anticipated as hydration can help reduce the viscosity of sickled cells, improving circulation and potentially reducing vaso-occlusive events.

Ice packs to the affected area are nonessential and could potentially be contraindicated, as cold can cause vasoconstriction and may exacerbate pain.

Ambulation is nonessential during acute pain episodes and should be encouraged when the patient is comfortable and pain is controlled.

Hydromorphone IV for pain is anticipated because it is a stronger opioid than morphine and may be necessary if the pain is unresponsive to oral morphine sulfate.

Acetaminophen PO for pain is nonessential in this scenario as it is unlikely to provide adequate pain relief for severe vaso-occlusive pain.

Oxygen therapy is nonessential given the client's SpO2 is 95% on room air, indicating adequate oxygen saturation; however, it may be considered if there is evidence of hypoxia or respiratory distress. It is crucial to monitor the client's response to pain management interventions and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Inserting a new indwelling urinary catheter could introduce new pathogens and increase the risk of infection rather than reduce it. Indwelling catheters are a known risk factor for urinary tract infections and should be avoided if possible.
B. Collecting blood cultures is an important diagnostic step, especially if sepsis is suspected. However, this action alone does not directly reduce the risk of septic shock. It is a part of the process but not the most immediate intervention.
C. Initiating intravenous (IV) antibiotics is the most critical intervention to reduce the risk of septic shock. Prompt administration of antibiotics can help control the infection before it progresses to sepsis, making this the priority action.
D. Obtaining placement of an intravenous access for fluid administration is necessary for managing sepsis or septic shock, but the first step should be administering antibiotics to treat the infection causing the sepsis. Fluid administration supports blood pressure and circulation but does not directly address the underlying infection.

A. Initiate droplet precautions. B. Prepare to administer antiviral therapy. C. Assess for hemorrhage. D. Assess the respiratory system.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Droplet precautions are not appropriate for anthrax exposure. Precautions would be based on the specific form of anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, or gastrointestinal).
B. Anthrax is treated with antibiotics, not antiviral therapy. Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is typically used for prophylaxis and treatment.
C. While assessing for hemorrhage might be relevant in cases of severe anthrax, it is more critical initially to focus on respiratory assessment, particularly for inhalation anthrax.
D. Assessing the respiratory system is crucial for clients exposed to anthrax, particularly inhalation anthrax, as it can cause severe respiratory symptoms and complications. Prompt assessment is essential for early detection and treatment of respiratory distress.

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A nurse is caring for a 38-year-old client who presents to the emergency department (ED) in pain. Exhibits For each potential healthcare provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An immunocompromised older adult has developed a urinary tract infection, and the healthcare team recognizes the need to prevent an exacerbation of the client's infection that could result in sepsis and septic shock. What action should the nurse perform to reduce the client's risk of septic shock?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has been exposed to anthrax. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to use while caring for this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a 38-year-old client who presents to the emergency department (ED) in pain.

Exhibits

For each potential healthcare provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.