A nurse is caring for a client who has a viral infection and is taking an antiviral medication that inhibits the integrase enzyme that is essential for viral DNA integration into host cell genome. Which of the following antiviral groups does this medication belong to?
Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)
Protease inhibitors (PIs).
The Correct Answer is C
Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) are a class of antiviral drugs that block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell. This prevents the virus from replicating and infecting new cells.
Choice A is wrong because nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) are a class of antiviral drugs that block the action of reverse transcriptase, a viral enzyme that converts the viral RNA into DNA.
Choice B is wrong because non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) are a class of antiviral drugs that also block the action of reverse transcriptase, but in a different way than NRTIs. They bind to a different site on the enzyme and cause it to change shape.
Choice D is wrong because protease inhibitors (PIs) are a class of antiviral drugs that block the action of protease, a viral enzyme that cleaves the viral polyprotein into functional units. This prevents the virus from assembling and maturing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Amphotericin B is a drug used to treat fungal infections, but it can cause kidney damage and electrolyte imbalance as a common side effect. The nurse should monitor the client’s urine output, creatinine, potassium, and magnesium levels.
Choice B is wrong because Ototoxicity is wrong because amphotericin B does not affect the ears or hearing.
Ototoxicity is more common with aminoglycosides, another class of antibiotics.
Choice C is wrong because Hepatotoxicity is wrong because amphotericin B does not cause liver damage.
Hepatotoxicity is more common with azoles, another class of antifungals.
Choice D is wrong because Thrombocytopenia is wrong because amphotericin B does not cause low platelet count.
Thrombocytopenia is more common with heparin, an anticoagulant drug.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This statement indicates that the client understands the proper use of terbinafine cream for tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection of the feet.Terbinafine cream is an antifungal agent that works by killing the fungus or preventing its growth.According to a study, terbinafine 1% cream applied once daily for 7 days is effective in treating interdigital tinea pedis, but some sources recommend applying it twice daily for 2 weeks.
Choice B is wrong because washing the feet with soap and water before applying the cream is not necessary and may cause irritation or dryness of the skin.
Choice C is wrong because covering the affected area with a bandage after applying the cream is not advised and may create a moist environment that favors fungal growth.
Choice D is wrong because itching or burning are common side effects of terbinafine cream and do not indicate an allergic reaction or a need to stop using the cream.However, if the symptoms are severe or persist, the client should contact their health care provider.
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