A nurse is caring for a client who has malaria and is prescribed chloroquine. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
It inhibits heme polymerization in the parasite.
It disrupts mitochondrial function in the parasite.
It interferes with DNA synthesis in the parasite.
It blocks calcium influx in the parasite.
The Correct Answer is A
Chloroquine inhibits heme polymerization in the parasite, which causes the accumulation of toxic heme and kills the parasite.
Choice B is wrong because chloroquine does not disrupt mitochondrial function in the parasite.
Choice C is wrong because chloroquine does not interfere with DNA synthesis in the parasite.
Choice D is wrong because chloroquine does not block calcium influx in the parasite.
Heme polymerization is the process of converting heme, a toxic byproduct of hemoglobin digestion, into hemozoin, a nontoxic pigment that can be stored by the parasite. Chloroquine forms a complex with heme and prevents it from polymerizing, thus disrupting the parasite’s metabolism and survival.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rifampin is a drug that can interact with atovaquone-proguanil and reduce its effectiveness in preventing or treating malaria.Rifampin can lower the blood levels of atovaquone and proguanil by increasing their metabolism in the liver. Therefore, rifampin should be avoided or used with caution when taking atovaquone-proguanil.
Choice A is wrong because warfarin is not a known interaction with atovaquone-proguanil.
Warfarin is a blood thinner that can interact with many other drugs, but atovaquone-proguanil is not one of them.
Choice B is wrong because metformin is not a known interaction with atovaquone-proguanil.
Metformin is a drug that lowers blood sugar levels in people with diabetes.
It does not affect the metabolism or efficacy of atovaquone-proguanil.
Choice C is wrong because omeprazole is not a known interaction with atovaquone-proguanil.
Omeprazole is a drug that reduces stomach acid production and treats ulcers and reflux.
It does not interfere with the absorption or action of atovaquone-proguanil.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This statement indicates that the client understands the proper use of terbinafine cream for tinea pedis, which is a fungal infection of the feet.Terbinafine cream is an antifungal agent that works by killing the fungus or preventing its growth.According to a study, terbinafine 1% cream applied once daily for 7 days is effective in treating interdigital tinea pedis, but some sources recommend applying it twice daily for 2 weeks.
Choice B is wrong because washing the feet with soap and water before applying the cream is not necessary and may cause irritation or dryness of the skin.
Choice C is wrong because covering the affected area with a bandage after applying the cream is not advised and may create a moist environment that favors fungal growth.
Choice D is wrong because itching or burning are common side effects of terbinafine cream and do not indicate an allergic reaction or a need to stop using the cream.However, if the symptoms are severe or persist, the client should contact their health care provider.
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