A nurse is caring for a client who has a WBC count of 22,000. The nurse should conclude that the client has which of the following?
Leukocytosis
Left shift
Erythrocytosis
Neutropenia
The Correct Answer is A
A. Leukocytosis refers to an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, typically above the normal range (approximately 4,000 to 10,000 WBCs per microliter of blood). A count of 22,000 indicates leukocytosis, which may be due to infection, inflammation, stress, or other conditions.
B. A left shift refers to an increase in immature white blood cells, particularly neutrophil precursors, in the bloodstream. It often indicates an acute infection or inflammatory response. While the WBC count of 22,000 may suggest a left shift, it does not confirm it without further analysis of the differential count of the WBCs.
C. Erythrocytosis is an increase in red blood cells (RBCs), not white blood cells. Therefore, this option is incorrect. A high WBC count does not indicate changes in red blood cell levels.
D. Neutropenia refers to a decreased number of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. Given the WBC count of 22,000, neutropenia is not applicable and is therefore incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Prednisone can lead to sodium and fluid retention, which can result in hypertension and edema. While this is an important consideration, it is not the most critical point to emphasize initially. Managing weight and blood pressure is essential, but there are more immediate concerns with the medication's use.
B. Long-term use of prednisone can result in changes such as fat redistribution, leading to a "moon face," buffalo hump, and increased abdominal fat. This is significant for understanding the side effects of prolonged therapy, but it is not the most urgent information for the client to know.
C. Prednisone can cause side effects such as mood changes, anxiety, or jitteriness, especially when initiating treatment or adjusting dosages. While this is relevant, the potential for emotional or psychological effects is secondary to the critical management of the medication.
D. This is the most critical point to emphasize. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can suppress the body's natural adrenal function. Abrupt discontinuation can lead to adrenal crisis, which can be life- threatening.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is the first and most critical action to take. The patient's symptoms suggest a possible transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion immediately prevents further exposure to potentially harmful blood components.
B. Administering oxygen may be necessary if the patient exhibits signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia. However, this action should come after ensuring that the transfusion is stopped and the patient is stabilized, as continuing the transfusion could exacerbate the reaction.
C. While providing warmth can help alleviate chills, it is not the priority action. The patient's safety is more important, and symptoms of a transfusion reaction must be addressed first.
D. Checking the temperature can provide useful information about the patient's condition, especially if a fever is present, but it is not an immediate priority. The focus should be on stopping the transfusion and managing the acute symptoms.
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