A nurse is caring for a client who has a WBC count of 22,000. The nurse should conclude that the client has which of the following?

Leukocytosis

Left shift

Erythrocytosis

Neutropenia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Leukocytosis refers to an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, typically above the normal range (approximately 4,000 to 10,000 WBCs per microliter of blood). A count of 22,000 indicates leukocytosis, which may be due to infection, inflammation, stress, or other conditions.
B.   A left shift refers to an increase in immature white blood cells, particularly neutrophil precursors, in the bloodstream. It often indicates an acute infection or inflammatory response. While the WBC count of 22,000 may suggest a left shift, it does not confirm it without further analysis of the differential count of the WBCs.
C.   Erythrocytosis is an increase in red blood cells (RBCs), not white blood cells. Therefore, this option is incorrect. A high WBC count does not indicate changes in red blood cell levels.
D.   Neutropenia refers to a decreased number of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. Given the WBC count of 22,000, neutropenia is not applicable and is therefore incorrect.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Hallux Valgus refers to a deformity where the big toe (hallux) angles towards the second toe, often accompanied by a bony bump (bunion) on the side of the foot. This condition can cause pain, discomfort, and difficulty in finding properly fitting footwear.
B. Ulnar deviation refers to the movement of the wrist where the hand deviates towards the ulnar bone (the side of the little finger). It is often associated with rheumatoid arthritis and not related to foot deformities.
C. Nodules on the fingers can occur in various conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis (called rheumatoid nodules). This term does not relate to Hallux Valgus or any deformity of the foot.
D. Bone spurs are bony projections that develop along the edges of bones, often related to osteoarthritis. While they can occur in the knees, they are not associated with Hallux Valgus.

A. The patient takes a multivitamin tablet everyday B. The patient takes an antacid with the iron to avoid nausea C. The patient reports stools are black D. The patient complains of occasional constipation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. While taking a multivitamin can provide additional nutrients, it is generally not a cause for concern unless the multivitamin contains high doses of certain minerals that might interact negatively with iron absorption. However, this is less pressing compared to the interaction between antacids and iron.
B. Antacids can significantly interfere with the absorption of oral iron supplements, leading to inadequate treatment of iron deficiency anemia. This is the most concerning finding because it may negate the effectiveness of the iron supplementation, making it harder for the patient to improve their iron levels.
C. Black stools are a common and expected side effect of iron supplementation due to the presence of unabsorbed iron in the gastrointestinal tract. While the nurse should monitor for this, it is not inherently concerning as it indicates that the iron is being ingested.
D. Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements. Although it can be uncomfortable, it is not as critical as the potential interference caused by taking antacids. Management strategies can often alleviate this side effect.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a WBC count of 22,000. The nurse should conclude that the client has which of the following?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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