A nurse is caring for a client who has hemiplegia following a stroke. The client's adult son is distressed over his mother's crying and condition. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
It must be hard to see your mother so ill and upset.
If you just sit quietly with your mother, I'm sure she will calm down.
I'll talk with your mother and see if I can comfort her.
"Your mother's crying seems to bother you more than it does her."
The Correct Answer is A
A. It must be hard to see your mother so ill and upset is a compassionate and empathetic response that acknowledges the son's distress while validating his feelings. This approach fosters open communication and emotional support, which is important for both the patient and their family.
B. Telling the son to sit quietly with his mother may invalidate his feelings and suggests that the solution is simply to wait for the mother to calm down. It does not acknowledge his emotional distress or provide the necessary support.
C. While offering to comfort the mother is kind, this response does not address the son’s emotional needs. It is important to support the family members as well, not just the patient.
D. "Your mother's crying seems to bother you more than it does her" is dismissive of the son's feelings and could make him feel misunderstood or judged. It does not provide the necessary emotional support for the son.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Providing a dark, quiet environment is an appropriate intervention for a client with a migraine headache. Migraines are often aggravated by bright lights and loud noises, so creating a calm, low-stimulation environment can help alleviate symptoms.
B. While caffeine can be a trigger for some individuals with migraines, it is not necessary to eliminate all caffeine. In fact, caffeine is sometimes included in medications for migraines to enhance their effectiveness.
C. Cognitive impairment is not a typical concern for migraines unless the headache is severe or prolonged. Monitoring for cognitive impairment would not be the primary action in this scenario.
D. Opioids are not recommended for the treatment of migraines due to their potential for abuse and side effects. NSAIDs, triptans, and other specific migraine treatments are preferred.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Sleeping more during the day than nighttime is not a typical manifestation of primary dementia. While changes in sleep patterns can occur in individuals with dementia, the hallmark features are related to cognitive decline and memory loss, not excessive daytime sleep.
B. Forgetfulness gradually progressing to disorientation is a classic manifestation of primary dementia, particularly Alzheimer's disease. This condition is characterized by progressive memory loss, confusion, and eventually, disorientation.
C. Temporary, reversible loss of brain function is not characteristic of primary dementia. Dementia is typically a progressive and irreversible decline in cognitive function, with symptoms worsening over time.
D. Hypervigilant behaviors are not typically associated with primary dementia. Instead, individuals with dementia may experience confusion, apathy, or withdrawal, but hypervigilance is more commonly associated with conditions such as anxiety or paranoia.
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