An elderly client presents to the emergency room with a family member. The family member reports that the elderly client has been vomiting and not eating or drinking for 2 days. This morning the elderly client became confused, which is new. The nurse knows the elderly client probably has which of the following?

Delirium

New onset Alzheimer's disease

New onset Huntington's disease

New onset Parkinson's disease

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Delirium is an acute, temporary state of confusion, often caused by factors such as dehydration, infection, or metabolic disturbances. In this case, the elderly client’s confusion following vomiting and not eating or drinking for 2 days suggests that dehydration or an underlying illness is likely causing the delirium.

B. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive, degenerative condition that leads to chronic memory loss and cognitive decline. It does not typically cause sudden confusion, as seen in this case.

C. Huntington's disease is a genetic neurodegenerative disorder that causes motor dysfunction and cognitive decline. It does not present suddenly with confusion in an elderly client.

D. Parkinson's disease is a progressive neurological disorder that primarily affects motor function, causing tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. It does not typically present with sudden confusion or the symptoms described in this case.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Weakness in the lower body is not an accurate description of paraplegia. Paraplegia refers to the loss of function, not just weakness.

B. Paraplegia refers to the loss of motor and sensory function in the lower body, including the legs, due to a spinal cord injury, typically below the level of the injury. This is the most accurate response.

C. Temporary loss of motor and sensory functions is more characteristic of conditions like spinal shock, not paraplegia. Paraplegia refers to permanent impairment following spinal cord injury.

D. The description of loss of movement from the neck down is characteristic of quadriplegia (or tetraplegia), not paraplegia, which specifically involves the lower body.

A. "All family members are now at risk for the disease." B. "Only your children need to be tested for a genetic connection." C. "If you are not diagnosed by age 20, you are considered safe." D. "You definitely need to have genetic testing for the disease."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, meaning that if one parent has the gene, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting it. Therefore, all family members are at risk for the disease.

B. While genetic testing may be relevant for the patient’s children, it is not limited only to them. The patient and other family members are also at risk and may choose to be tested.

C. Huntington disease typically manifests between ages 30 and 50, and there is no age cutoff for determining risk. Early diagnosis may occur, but not being diagnosed by age 20 does not rule out the disease.

D. While genetic testing can confirm the presence of the gene, it is not the only way to determine risk. Family history and clinical symptoms are also key factors in understanding the risk for Huntington disease.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client following a complete spinal cord transection injury. The client's family asks the nurse what the term paraplegia means. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient is distressed to learn that a sibling is diagnosed with both neurologic and cognitive manifestations of Huntington disease. When the patient asks the nurse how to determine the incidence of the disease, which answer is most appropriate?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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