A nurse is caring for a client who has oral candidiasis and is prescribed nystatin suspension.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Instruct the client to swish and swallow the medication
Administer the medication with a dropper to avoid aspiration
Dilute the medication with water before giving it to the client
Give the medication after meals to increase its effectiveness.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because nystatin suspension is an antifungal medication that works by coating the oral mucosa and killing the candida organisms. Swishing and swallowing the medication ensures that it reaches all the affected areas in the mouth and throat.
Choice B is wrong because administering the medication with a dropper to avoid aspiration is not necessary for a client who has oral candidiasis.
The client should be able to swish and swallow the medication without difficulty.
Choice C is wrong because diluting the medication with water before giving it to the client reduces its effectiveness and concentration.
The medication should be given undiluted for optimal results.
Choice D is wrong because giving the medication after meals to increase its effectiveness is not accurate. The medication should be given at least 30 minutes before or after meals to avoid interference with food or beverages.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Maraviroc is aCCR5 coreceptor antagonistthat blocks the receptor site the HIV virus needs to interact with in order to enter the cell.It prevents viral fusion with host cell membrane by binding to the CCR5 receptor on CD4+ T cells and macrophages.
Choice B is wrong becauseAbacavir is wrong because it is anucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)that inhibits the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which converts viral RNA into DNA.
It does not prevent viral fusion with host cell membrane.
Choice C is wrong becauseDarunavir is wrong because it is aprotease inhibitor (PI)that inhibits the enzyme protease, which cleaves viral proteins into functional units.
It does not prevent viral fusion with host cell membrane.
Choice D is wrong becauseFosamprenavir is wrong because it is also aprotease inhibitor (PI)that inhibits the enzyme protease.
It does not prevent viral fusion with host cell membrane.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Here is why:
• Choice A:Monitor the client’s serum creatinine level.
This is correct because vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity (damage to the kidneys) and serum creatinine is a marker of kidney function.A high serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function and may require dose adjustment or discontinuation of vancomycin.
• Choice B:Monitor the client’s serum vancomycin level.
This is correct because vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic range, meaning that there is a small difference between the effective dose and the toxic dose.Monitoring the serum vancomycin level can help to ensure that the drug is within the therapeutic range and avoid toxicity or suboptimal efficacy.
• Choice C:Infuse the drug over at least 60 minutes.
This is correct because vancomycin can cause a hypersensitivity reaction called “red man syndrome” or “red neck syndrome”, which is characterized by flushing, itching, rash, hypotension and tachycardia.
This reaction is not an allergy but a result of histamine release due to rapid infusion of vancomycin.Infusing the drug over at least 60 minutes can reduce the risk of this reaction.
• Choice D:Observe the client for signs of ototoxicity.
This is incorrect because vancomycin is not known to cause ototoxicity (damage to the ears) in humans.Ototoxicity has been reported in animal studies and in vitro studies, but not in clinical trials or case reports involving humans.
Therefore, there is no need to monitor for signs of ototoxicity such as hearing loss, tinnitus or vertigo.
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