A nurse is caring for a client who has respiratory depression from an opioid administration.
After administering naloxone to the client, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Increased pain.
Somnolence.
Hyperglycemia.
Hypoventilation.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is A. Increased pain.
Choice A reason: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that, when administered, reverses the effects of opioids. Since opioids provide analgesia, their reversal will lead to the return of pain sensation. The normal pain response varies widely among individuals and depends on the type and amount of opioid the patient received, as well as their pain threshold and tolerance.
Choice B reason: Somnolence, or drowsiness, is a common effect of opioid administration. Naloxone works by displacing opioids from their receptors, which should counteract the sedative effects of opioids and reduce somnolence. Therefore, after naloxone administration, the nurse should not expect somnolence as a finding.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, is not a direct effect of naloxone administration. While some studies suggest that naloxone may affect blood glucose levels under certain conditions, such as in the case of tramadol overdose, it does not typically cause hyperglycemia. Normal blood glucose levels range from 70 to 99 mg/dL fasting, and up to 140 mg/dL two hours after eating.
Choice D reason: Hypoventilation, or reduced breathing rate and depth, is caused by opioid administration. Naloxone’s role is to reverse this effect, restoring normal breathing rates. The normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client who received a Mantoux test 48 hr ago and has an induration does not require immediate follow-up care. An induration at the injection site indicates a positive reaction, but further evaluation and management are necessary, not urgent.
Choice B rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care. The normal range for INR in a client taking warfarin is usually 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 1.8 suggests inadequate anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of thromboembolic events. Dose adjustment or other interventions are needed to bring the INR within the therapeutic range.
Choice C rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not necessarily require immediate follow-up care. However, sodium phosphate can cause electrolyte imbalances, so monitoring for any signs of electrolyte disturbances is essential, but it does not mandate urgent intervention.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking bumetanide with a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L requires follow-up care. The normal range for potassium is typically 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A potassium level below the normal range (hypokalemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. The client may need potassium supplements or dietary adjustments to correct the imbalance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Maternal hypoglycemia.
Choice A rationale:
Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased glucose availability for the fetus, which can result in fetal bradycardia due to reduced energy supply.
Choice B rationale:
Fetal anemia typically causes fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia, as the fetus compensates for the lack of oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing the heart rate.
Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis, an infection of the fetal membranes, usually causes fetal tachycardia due to the inflammatory response and fever.
Choice D rationale:
Maternal fever is more likely to cause fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia, as the increased maternal temperature can lead to an increased fetal heart rate.
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