A nurse is caring for a client who has respiratory depression from an opioid administration.
After administering naloxone to the client, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Increased pain.
Somnolence.
Hyperglycemia.
Hypoventilation.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is A. Increased pain.
Choice A reason: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that, when administered, reverses the effects of opioids. Since opioids provide analgesia, their reversal will lead to the return of pain sensation. The normal pain response varies widely among individuals and depends on the type and amount of opioid the patient received, as well as their pain threshold and tolerance.
Choice B reason: Somnolence, or drowsiness, is a common effect of opioid administration. Naloxone works by displacing opioids from their receptors, which should counteract the sedative effects of opioids and reduce somnolence. Therefore, after naloxone administration, the nurse should not expect somnolence as a finding.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, is not a direct effect of naloxone administration. While some studies suggest that naloxone may affect blood glucose levels under certain conditions, such as in the case of tramadol overdose, it does not typically cause hyperglycemia. Normal blood glucose levels range from 70 to 99 mg/dL fasting, and up to 140 mg/dL two hours after eating.
Choice D reason: Hypoventilation, or reduced breathing rate and depth, is caused by opioid administration. Naloxone’s role is to reverse this effect, restoring normal breathing rates. The normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the client to abstain from sexual intercourse for one month is not necessary for the management of Chlamydia trachomatis. Instead, the client should be advised to abstain from sexual activity until they and their partner(s) have completed the prescribed course of antibiotics and are no longer contagious, which is usually within 7 days.
Choice B rationale:
Administering ceftriaxone via intermittent IV bolus is not the recommended route for treating Chlamydia trachomatis. The standard treatment for Chlamydia trachomatis infection is oral antibiotics, such as azithromycin or doxycycline. Intravenous administration is not typically required for uncomplicated cases.
Choice C rationale:
Scheduling the client for retesting in one week is not necessary if the client has received appropriate treatment and follows the prescribed course of antibiotics. Retesting is generally recommended 3 months after treatment, especially in cases of persistent or recurrent symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Reporting the infection to the state department of health is a crucial action. Chlamydia trachomatis is a reportable sexually transmitted infection in many jurisdictions. Reporting helps public health authorities track the incidence of the disease, implement preventive measures, and allocate resources effectively to control its spread within the community. It is essential for the nurse to comply with legal and ethical obligations by reporting the infection to the appropriate health authorities.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
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