A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin.
Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
The client tests negative for HIV.
The client has a negative sputum culture.
The client’s liver function test results are within the expected reference range.
The client has a positive purified protein derivative test.
The Correct Answer is B
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Increased pulse rate.
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
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