A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin.
Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?
The client tests negative for HIV.
The client has a negative sputum culture.
The client’s liver function test results are within the expected reference range.
The client has a positive purified protein derivative test.
The Correct Answer is B
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Medication reconciliation is the process of creating the most accurate list possible of all medications a client is taking and comparing that list against the physician’s orders at every transition of care. A client who is transferred to a step-down unit is at risk of medication errors due to changes in the level of care and the prescribing providers. Therefore, medication reconciliation should be performed for this client to prevent adverse drug events.
Choice A is wrong because a referral for social services does not involve a change in the client’s medications or care setting.
Choice B is wrong because transport to radiology is a temporary and short-term movement that does not require medication reconciliation.
Choice D is wrong because a consultation for physical therapy does not affect the client’s medication regimen or orders.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
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