A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a bilateral adrenalectomy. The nurse monitors for which of the following signs of Addisonian crisis?

Hypernatremia

Fluid volume overload

Hypokalemia

Hypoglycemia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Hypernatremia (elevated sodium levels) is not a common sign of Addisonian crisis. In Addisonian crisis, the lack of aldosterone leads to sodium loss, which often results in hyponatremia (low sodium levels) rather than hypernatremia. The patient might also experience dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, but hypernatremia is not typical in this scenario.
B.   Fluid volume overload is not characteristic of Addisonian crisis. Instead, Addisonian crisis often leads to fluid volume deficit due to the loss of aldosterone, which impairs sodium and water retention. This can result in dehydration and low blood volume rather than fluid overload.
C.   Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is not typically associated with Addisonian crisis. In fact, the lack of aldosterone in Addisonian crisis leads to potassium retention, resulting in hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is not relevant in the context of Addisonian crisis following a bilateral adrenalectomy.
D.   Hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) is a key sign of Addisonian crisis. Cortisol plays a crucial role in glucose metabolism and maintaining blood glucose levels. With the loss of cortisol production after a bilateral adrenalectomy, patients may experience hypoglycemia, which can be a critical indicator of Addisonian crisis.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

A. tertiary prevention B. primary prevention C. secondary prevention D. treatment for hepatitis B

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing the consequences of an existing disease or condition. The hepatitis B vaccination prevents the disease from occurring in the first place.
B. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or condition. The hepatitis B vaccination is a classic example of primary prevention, as it protects individuals from contracting the virus.
C. Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of a disease or condition. The hepatitis B vaccination is not intended for the early detection or treatment of an existing infection.
D. The hepatitis B vaccination is not a treatment for hepatitis B. It is a preventative measure to protect individuals from contracting the virus.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a bilateral adrenalectomy. The nurse monitors for which of the following signs of Addisonian crisis?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Explanation

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