A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.
The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.
Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

"This could result in profound bleeding.”

"There is an increased risk of introducing infection.”

"This could initiate preterm labor.”

"There is an increased risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A.

Choice A rationale:

An internal examination could disturb the placenta and cause profound bleeding, which is a life-threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus.

Choice B rationale:

While there is always a risk of introducing infection during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

Choice C rationale:

An internal examination could potentially initiate preterm labor, but this is not the primary concern with placenta previa.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C.

Choice A rationale:

Notifying the provider is not necessary in this case as the findings are normal for a client who is 1 hour postpartum.

Choice B rationale:

Increasing the frequency of fundal massage is not necessary as the fundus is firm and at the umbilicus.

Choice C rationale:

The findings are normal for a client who is 1 hour postpartum. The nurse should document the findings and continue to monitor the client. Therefore, this choice is correct.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging the client to empty her bladder is not necessary in this case as the fundus is midline.

A. The cervix is effaced 1 cm. B. The presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines. C. The cervix is 1 cm dilated. D. The presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B.

Choice A rationale:

The term “-1” in a vaginal examination does not refer to the effacement of the cervix. Effacement is usually expressed as a percentage.

Choice B rationale:

In a vaginal examination, “-1” refers to the station of the fetus. A “-1” station means that the presenting part of the fetus (usually the head) is 1 cm above the ischial spines.

Choice C rationale:

The term “-1” in a vaginal examination does not refer to the dilation of the cervix. Dilation is usually measured in centimeters, from 0 (no dilation) to 10 (fully dilated).

Choice D rationale:

A “-1” station does not mean that the presenting part is below the ischial spines. It means that it is above the ischial spines.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad.The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus.Which of the following actions should the nurse take?.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client following a vaginal examination by the provider which is documented as: -1. Which of the following interpretations of this finding should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.
The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.
Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?