A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for alcohol withdrawal delirium.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
Naloxone.
Bupropion.
Methadone.
Chlordiazepoxide.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not effective for managing alcohol withdrawal delirium, which requires different pharmacological interventions.
Choice B rationale
Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant used for smoking cessation and depression. It is not effective in treating alcohol withdrawal delirium and could exacerbate symptoms of withdrawal.
Choice C rationale
Methadone is used for opioid dependence and chronic pain management. It does not address the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal delirium and may not be suitable in this context.
Choice D rationale
Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms. It helps prevent seizures and reduces the risk of delirium tremens by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. It replenishes glutathione stores and detoxifies N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), a toxic metabolite, preventing liver damage.
Choice B rationale
Acetylcysteine does not have a role in treating gastrointestinal bleeds. Management of gastrointestinal bleeds typically involves hemostatic agents, proton pump inhibitors, and endoscopic interventions.
Choice C rationale
Acute bronchospasm is treated with bronchodilators like albuterol, not acetylcysteine. While acetylcysteine is a mucolytic, it does not address bronchoconstriction or airway inflammation.
Choice D rationale
Morphine toxicity is treated with naloxone, an opioid antagonist. Acetylcysteine has no effect on opioid receptors and cannot reverse the central nervous system and respiratory depression caused by morphine.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms. It is not effective in treating malignant hyperthermia, a condition characterized by rapid onset of hypermetabolism and muscle rigidity triggered by certain anesthetics.
Choice B rationale
Dantrolene is the drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia. It acts by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle, thereby reducing muscle rigidity and metabolic activity. Administer 2.5 mg/kg IV bolus initially.
Choice C rationale
Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant used to relieve muscle spasms associated with acute musculoskeletal conditions. It does not have the specific mechanism required to counteract the effects of malignant hyperthermia.
Choice D rationale
Metaxalone is a muscle relaxant used to treat discomfort associated with acute skeletal muscle conditions. It is not indicated for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia and does not address the underlying pathophysiology of the condition.
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