A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin via oral (PO) route.
Two hours after the administration of warfarin, the client reports having dark tarry stools and petechiae.
Based on the client's presenting symptoms, which of the following options is an antidote for warfarin toxicity?

Vitamin K1.

Protamine sulfate.

Heparin.

Digibind.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Vitamin K1 is used as an antidote for warfarin toxicity because it helps in the synthesis of clotting factors, reversing the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

Choice B rationale

Protamine sulfate is used to counteract the effects of heparin, not warfarin.

Choice C rationale

Heparin is an anticoagulant and would worsen bleeding if given in the case of warfarin toxicity.

Choice D rationale

Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity and has no role in reversing the effects of warfarin. .

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.

Choice B rationale

Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.

Choice C rationale

Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.

Choice D rationale

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.

A. Alkylating agents. B. Antitumor antibiotics. C. Opiate antagonists. D. Antimetabolites.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Alkylating agents are cytotoxic and work by damaging DNA, preventing cancer cell replication.

Choice B rationale

Antitumor antibiotics are cytotoxic and interfere with DNA or RNA synthesis, inhibiting cancer cell growth.

Choice C rationale

Opiate antagonists are not used in cancer treatment but to reverse opioid overdoses by blocking opioid receptors.

Choice D rationale

Antimetabolites are cytotoxic and interfere with DNA and RNA growth by substituting for the normal building blocks of RNA and DNA.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin via oral (PO) route.Two hours after the administration of warfarin, the client reports having dark tarry stools and petechiae.Based on the client's presenting symptoms, which of the following options is an antidote for warfarin toxicity?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) that will be discharged from the hospital in the next hour.The nurse notes that the client is unable to provide self-injections at home.Which of the following medications should the nurse expect for discharge to manage the DVT at home?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which of the following medication classifications is not considered a cytotoxic chemotherapy agent?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin via oral (PO) route.
Two hours after the administration of warfarin, the client reports having dark tarry stools and petechiae.
Based on the client's presenting symptoms, which of the following options is an antidote for warfarin toxicity?