A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prazosin. The client's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Administer a reversal agent.

Initiate cardiac monitoring.

Instruct the client to stand up slowly.

Inform the client to report urinary retention.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Incorrect. Prazosin is an alpha-adrenergic blocker used to treat hypertension and does not typically require a reversal agent in this situation.
B.   Incorrect. While prazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, initiation of cardiac monitoring is not typically necessary unless there are additional signs or symptoms of cardiovascular instability.
C.   Correct. Prazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, so instructing the client to stand up slowly can help prevent falls and minimize symptoms of dizziness or lightheadedness.
D.   Incorrect. While prazosin can cause urinary retention, the client's blood pressure is low, suggesting hypotension rather than urinary retention as the primary concern. Therefore, instructing the client to report urinary retention is not the most appropriate action in this scenario.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists (e.g., albuterol), are the first-line medications for relieving acute bronchoconstriction and severe wheezing in asthma exacerbations.
B. Beta blockers are contraindicated in asthma as they can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and worsen symptoms.
C. Inhaled steroids are used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and prevention of exacerbations but are not typically used as first-line treatment for acute severe wheezing.
D. Anti-inflammatory agents such as corticosteroids are also used for long-term control of asthma and reducing airway inflammation but are not the first choice for immediate relief of severe wheezing.

A. The client's foot feels cooler than in the previous assessment. B. The client's pedal pulse in the right foot is not palpable. C. The client's capillary refill time is 5 seconds in the toes. D. The client reports a pain level of 8 on a scale from 0 to 10.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. While a cooler foot than in the previous assessment may indicate decreased perfusion, the absence of a palpable pedal pulse is a more significant finding as it suggests compromised arterial blood flow to the foot.
B. The absence of a palpable pedal pulse indicates diminished arterial blood flow to the foot, which is a critical finding following a femoropopliteal bypass graft. It suggests potential complications such as graft occlusion or inadequate blood flow distal to the graft site.
C. Capillary refill time of 5 seconds in the toes may indicate delayed capillary refill, which could be a concern but is not as immediately critical as the absence of a palpable pedal pulse.

D. While pain is an important assessment finding, a pain level of 8 on a scale from 0 to 10 is subjective and does not provide specific information about the client's vascular status. Pain assessment should be considered along with other objective findings.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prazosin. The client's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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