A nurse is educating a client who is newly prescribed scopolamine (Scopace) patches for treating motion sickness. Which of the following client statements indicate to the nurse that the teaching has been effective? (Select All That Apply.).
(Select All that Apply.)
"I should apply this patch behind my ear."
"This patch should be replaced every 7 days."
"I should not use a second patch if the initial patch is ineffective."
"Before putting on my patch, I should wipe the area with an alcohol swab."
Correct Answer : A,C
A. "I should apply this patch behind my ear.": This is correct because the scopolamine patch is designed to be applied behind the ear, where it can effectively deliver medication through the skin.
B. "This patch should be replaced every 7 days.": This is incorrect because the scopolamine patch should be replaced every 72 hours (3 days), not every 7 days.
C. "I should not use a second patch if the initial patch is ineffective.": This is correct because using more than one patch at a time can lead to an overdose of the medication, which can cause serious side effects.
D. "Before putting on my patch, I should wipe the area with an alcohol swab.": This is incorrect because using an alcohol swab can irritate the skin and affect the absorption of the medication. The area should be clean and dry, but not cleaned with alcohol.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Nausea is the symptom prochlorperazine is intended to treat, so its occurrence would suggest that the medication is not effective rather than being a complication.
B. Prolonged QT interval is not a typical complication of prochlorperazine; it is more commonly associated with medications like ondansetron.
C. Restlessness can indicate akathisia, a potential extrapyramidal side effect of prochlorperazine. This condition involves an intense feeling of restlessness and the need to move, commonly associated with dopamine antagonists.
D. Vomiting is a symptom treated by prochlorperazine and would likely occur due to inadequate control rather than being a complication of the drug itself.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Glucagon is not used to treat thyroid cancer; treatments for thyroid cancer often include radioactive iodine therapy or surgery.
B. Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia in diabetic patients when they are unable to take oral glucose. It works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, rapidly raising blood sugar levels.
C. Diabetes insipidus involves a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone or kidney insensitivity to it and is treated with desmopressin or adequate hydration, not glucagon.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is typically managed with lifestyle changes, oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin. Glucagon is not used for routine management but is reserved for severe hypoglycemia emergencies.
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