A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider's prescription reads, "Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min." For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?
The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus.
Another formulation of potassium should be given IV.
Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water.
The potassium infusion rate is too rapid.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
IV bolus administration of potassium is not appropriate due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
The formulation of potassium (potassium chloride) is appropriate for IV administration.
Choice C rationale:
Potassium chloride is typically diluted in normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) for IV administration, not dextrose.
Choice D rationale:
The prescribed infusion rate of 30 mEq of potassium chloride over 30 minutes is too rapid and could lead to adverse effects, such as cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should clarify the prescription and discuss a slower infusion rate with the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Testing negative for HIV does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. HIV is a virus that weakens the immune system and makes people more susceptible to tuberculosis, but it is not related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Choice B rationale:
having a positive purified protein derivative test does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. A purified protein derivative test is a skin test that checks for exposure to tuberculosis bacteria, but it does not measure the effectiveness of the medication regimen. A positive test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis bacteria at some point in their life, but it does not mean that they have an active infection or that they are taking the antibiotics as prescribed.
Choice C rationale:
The client has a negative sputum culture. A sputum culture is a test that checks for the presence of tuberculosis bacteria in the mucus that is coughed up from the lungs. A negative sputum culture means that the bacteria are no longer detectable and that the medication regimen is effective. A positive sputum culture means that the bacteria are still present and that the medication regimen may need to be adjusted.
Choice D rationale:
Having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed. Liver function tests are blood tests that check for damage to the liver caused by medications or other factors. Isoniazid and rifampin can cause liver damage, so the nurse should monitor the client's liver function tests regularly to prevent or detect any problems. However, having normal liver function test results does not mean that the client is taking the antibiotics as prescribed or that the medication regimen is effective.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
IV bolus administration of potassium is not appropriate due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
The formulation of potassium (potassium chloride) is appropriate for IV administration.
Choice C rationale:
Potassium chloride is typically diluted in normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) for IV administration, not dextrose.
Choice D rationale:
The prescribed infusion rate of 30 mEq of potassium chloride over 30 minutes is too rapid and could lead to adverse effects, such as cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should clarify the prescription and discuss a slower infusion rate with the provider.
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