A nurse is caring for a client who is to start chemotherapy treatment advanced breast cancer. She tells the nurse she is worried about the adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

I agree. Sometimes the adverse effect can be worse than the disease

"Someone from the American Cancer Society will be here soon to answer your questions

What is it about the adverse effects that concern you?

I will have your provider discuss the adverse effects with you before the treatment begins

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) "I agree. Sometimes the adverse effects can be worse than the disease":
While it's important for the nurse to acknowledge the client's concerns, making this statement may not be helpful in this situation. It could unintentionally reinforce fear and anxiety, implying that the chemotherapy's side effects may be worse than the disease itself, which is not always the case. Instead, the nurse should engage the client in a discussion to explore the specific concerns, allowing for tailored support and information.

B) "Someone from the American Cancer Society will be here soon to answer your questions":
While the American Cancer Society can provide valuable support and resources, referring the client to someone else to answer their questions can feel dismissive. The nurse should take the opportunity to listen to the client’s concerns and provide immediate reassurance or information. Direct involvement in the discussion builds trust and allows for more immediate emotional and psychological support.

C) "What is it about the adverse effects that concern you?":
This response is the most appropriate as it encourages the client to express their specific concerns. By asking the client to clarify their worries, the nurse can provide more accurate information, address misunderstandings, and offer reassurance. This open-ended question helps the nurse understand the client's emotions and individual needs, which allows for a more personalized approach in managing anxiety and providing education about the chemotherapy treatment.
D) "I will have your provider discuss the adverse effects with you before the treatment begins":
While it is important for the healthcare provider to discuss the treatment plan and potential side effects, the nurse should not defer the conversation entirely. The nurse plays an essential role in providing ongoing support, educating the client, and answering questions. The nurse can start the conversation and provide information about the common side effects of chemotherapy, offering the opportunity for further discussion with the provider as needed. Deferring the conversation might leave the client feeling unsupported.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Heart rate of 130 beats per minute
A heart rate of 130 beats per minute is tachycardia, which is often a compensatory response to injury, particularly in cases of trauma, blood loss, or shock. It is common in the initial phase after trauma as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume or oxygen delivery. However, tachycardia alone is not typically fatal in the immediate post-injury period and can often be managed.

B) pH of 7.21 (normal 7.35–7.45)
A pH of 7.21 indicates acidosis, which is life-threatening and typically arises from shock, blood loss, or severe trauma. Acidosis occurs when the body is unable to compensate for lactic acid or other metabolic byproducts that accumulate due to insufficient oxygen delivery to tissues. In the case of a gunshot wound to the abdomen, there is a high risk of internal bleeding, hypoperfusion, and hypoxia, all of which can lead to metabolic acidosis. Severe acidosis can cause organ failure, particularly affecting the heart, kidneys, and brain.

C) Serum potassium 5.7 mEq/L (normal 3.5–5.3)
A serum potassium of 5.7 mEq/L is elevated, but it is moderately high and not typically life-threatening unless it reaches much higher levels (e.g., >6.0 mEq/L), which can cause cardiac arrhythmias. Elevated potassium can occur due to cellular injury (e.g., muscle trauma or rhabdomyolysis), but it would need to be corrected to prevent complications like arrhythmias.

D) Platelet count 200,000 (normal 150,000–450,000)
A platelet count of 200,000 is within the normal range (150,000–450,000) and does not indicate a problem with coagulation. The blood loss and the NG tube hemorrhage mentioned in the scenario suggest that the patient may be at risk for bleeding, but a platelet count in the normal range suggests that the body’s ability to form clots is likely intact.

A. Establish IV access apply 2L O2 via nasal cannula, and notify provider B. Assess below injury for noxious stimuli anticipate order hypertensive medication C. Administer acetaminophen and initiate intravenous (IV) fluids anticipate order for atropine D. Lower the head of the bed and apply a cool compress to the forehead

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Establish IV access, apply 2L O2 via nasal cannula, and notify provider:
While establishing IV access and providing oxygen are important aspects of managing many emergencies, this patient's symptoms suggest the presence of autonomic dysreflexia rather than a primary respiratory or circulatory issue. In autonomic dysreflexia, the primary concern is to remove the noxious stimulus (such as a full bladder, bowel impaction, or tight clothing) that is causing the severe hypertension and bradycardia.

B) Assess below injury for noxious stimuli, anticipate order for hypertensive medication:
The patient’s symptoms are consistent with autonomic dysreflexia, a serious condition that occurs in individuals with a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 level. The body’s autonomic nervous system overreacts to noxious stimuli (such as a distended bladder, bowel impaction, or skin irritation) below the level of injury, leading to a severe hypertensive crisis, bradycardia, and sympathetic hyperactivity. The nurse should immediately assess for and relieve any noxious stimuli below the injury level (e.g., checking for a full bladder, constipation, or tight clothing) and anticipate an order for antihypertensive medications if the blood pressure remains elevated.

C) Administer acetaminophen and initiate intravenous (IV) fluids, anticipate order for atropine:
While pain and discomfort (which can exacerbate autonomic dysreflexia) may need to be managed, acetaminophen is not the priority in this case. The priority is addressing the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia, such as relieving noxious stimuli. Additionally, atropine is used for bradycardia, but in autonomic dysreflexia, the bradycardia is secondary to the hypertensive crisis and usually resolves once the noxious stimulus is removed.

D) Lower the head of the bed and apply a cool compress to the forehead:
Although lowering the head of the bed may help reduce intracranial pressure and applying a cool compress may provide comfort, these interventions do not address the underlying cause of the autonomic dysreflexia.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is to start chemotherapy treatment advanced breast cancer. She tells the nurse she is worried about the adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse assesses the patient with a spinal cord injury at the level C-7 and finds warm, flushed skin with profuse sweating above the level of injury, and pale, cold skin below the level of injury. The patient is bradycardic, but severely hypertensive. What are the priority nursing interventions?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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