A nurse is caring for a client who questions the need for cardiac rehabilitation, stating, “My heart is permanently damaged from the heart attack, so what’s the point of cardiac rehabilitation?” Which response should the nurse prioritize?
“It’s not unusual to feel that way at first, but once you learn the routine, you’ll enjoy it.”
“Diet and exercise are good for you and good for your heart.”
“Cardiac rehabilitation cannot undo the damage to your heart but it can help you get back to your previous level of activity safely.”
“Your doctor is the expert here, and I’m sure they would only recommend what is best for you.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
“It’s not unusual to feel that way at first, but once you learn the routine, you’ll enjoy it.” While this response acknowledges the client’s feelings, it does not provide specific information about the benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. The client needs to understand how rehabilitation can help them recover and improve their quality of life.
Choice B reason:
“Diet and exercise are good for you and good for your heart.” This statement is true but too general. It does not address the client’s specific concerns about the purpose and benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. The client needs more detailed information about how the program can help them.
Choice C reason:
“Cardiac rehabilitation cannot undo the damage to your heart but it can help you get back to your previous level of activity safely.” This response directly addresses the client’s concerns and provides clear information about the benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. It explains that while the damage cannot be reversed, rehabilitation can help the client regain strength, improve cardiovascular health, and safely return to their daily activities.
Choice D reason:
“Your doctor is the expert here, and I’m sure they would only recommend what is best for you.” While this statement supports the doctor’s recommendation, it does not provide the client with specific information about the benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. The client needs to understand how the program can help them personally.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct method of administration for Sumatriptan (Imitrex) tablets. These tablets are designed to be swallowed whole. Chewing them could affect the medication’s efficacy and absorption.
Choice B reason:
“If you experience chest pain, call your physician immediately.” This instruction is crucial because Sumatriptan can cause serious cardiovascular side effects, including chest pain, which may indicate a heart attack or other serious condition. Clients need to be aware of this potential side effect and seek immediate medical attention if it occurs.
Choice C reason:
Taking Sumatriptan daily to prevent headaches is incorrect. Sumatriptan is used to treat acute migraine attacks and is not intended for daily use as a preventive medication. Using it daily could lead to medication overuse headaches and other adverse effects.
Choice D reason:
“Repeat dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache” is partially correct but incomplete. The correct instruction is to repeat the dose after 2 hours if the headache is not relieved, up to a maximum of two doses in 24 hours. Clients should follow the specific dosing instructions provided by their healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a reason:
A negative-pressure isolation room is designed to prevent the spread of airborne infectious diseases by ensuring that air flows into the room but not out of it. This type of room is typically used for patients with diseases such as tuberculosis, measles, or COVID-19, which are spread through airborne particles. Scabies, however, is spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items like bedding or clothing. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a patient with scabies, as the primary mode of transmission is not airborne.
Choice b reason:
A private room is the most appropriate setting for a client with scabies. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items. Placing the client in a private room helps to prevent the spread of the mites to other patients and staff. In a private room, the client can be isolated effectively, and healthcare workers can implement contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, to minimize the risk of transmission. This approach ensures that the client receives appropriate care while protecting others from potential exposure.
Choice c reason:
A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis (head lice) is not suitable for a client with scabies. Although both conditions involve infestations, they are caused by different parasites and have different modes of transmission. Pediculosis capitis is spread through direct contact with infested hair or personal items, while scabies is spread through prolonged skin-to-skin contact. Placing a client with scabies in a semi-private room with another infested patient increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both conditions. Therefore, this option is not recommended.
Choice d reason:
A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from airborne pathogens by ensuring that air flows out of the room but not into it. This type of room is used for patients who need to be protected from infections, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or with severe immune deficiencies. Since scabies is not an airborne disease and does not pose a risk to immunocompromised patients in this manner, a positive-pressure isolation room is not appropriate for a client with scabies. The primary concern with scabies is preventing direct contact transmission, which is best managed in a private room.
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