A nurse is caring for a client who received prochlorperazine (Compazine) via intravenous push (IVP) 2 hours ago for nausea/vomiting PRN. The nurse noted that the client had a sudden onset of involuntary spasms of the face and neck along with anxiety. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? (Select All That Apply.).
(Select All that Apply.)
Glucagon (Glucagen)
Metformin (Glucophage)
Benztropine (Cogentin)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Correct Answer : C,D
A. Glucagon (Glucagen): Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia and is not indicated for managing EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
B. Metformin (Glucophage): Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to manage diabetes mellitus and is not relevant for treating EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
C. Benztropine (Cogentin): Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as involuntary muscle spasms, caused by antipsychotic medications like prochlorperazine2.
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties that can also be used to manage EPS, including dystonic reactions2.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Glucagon (Glucagen): Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia and is not indicated for managing EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
B. Metformin (Glucophage): Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to manage diabetes mellitus and is not relevant for treating EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
C. Benztropine (Cogentin): Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as involuntary muscle spasms, caused by antipsychotic medications like prochlorperazine2.
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties that can also be used to manage EPS, including dystonic reactions2.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 4 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 4 teaspoons would provide 400 mg (100 mg x 4 = 400 mg), but the correct dose per administration is 400 mg. However, this is not the correct calculation, as only 2 teaspoons are needed.
B. 2 teaspoons – This is correct. The prescribed dose is 400 mg, and since the medication concentration is 100 mg per teaspoon, 2 teaspoons (100 mg x 2 = 200 mg) is the correct dose for each administration.
C. 1 teaspoon – This is incorrect because 1 teaspoon would only provide 100 mg, and the prescribed dose is 400 mg. This is not enough to meet the prescribed dose.
D. 3 teaspoons – This is incorrect because 3 teaspoons would provide 300 mg (100 mg x 3 = 300 mg), which is not enough to meet the prescribed 400 mg dose.
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