A nurse is caring for a client who received prochlorperazine (Compazine) via intravenous push (IVP) 2 hours ago for nausea/vomiting PRN. The nurse noted that the client had a sudden onset of involuntary spasms of the face and neck along with anxiety. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? (Select All That Apply.).
(Select All that Apply.)
Glucagon (Glucagen)
Metformin (Glucophage)
Benztropine (Cogentin)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Correct Answer : C,D
A. Glucagon (Glucagen): Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia and is not indicated for managing EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
B. Metformin (Glucophage): Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic agent used to manage diabetes mellitus and is not relevant for treating EPS or involuntary muscle spasms.
C. Benztropine (Cogentin): Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as involuntary muscle spasms, caused by antipsychotic medications like prochlorperazine2.
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties that can also be used to manage EPS, including dystonic reactions2.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "I will take both aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) and cimetidine (Tagamet HB) at the same time." – This is correct. Taking aluminum hydroxide and cimetidine simultaneously reduces the effectiveness of cimetidine by impairing its absorption. This statement indicates a need for further teaching.
B. "I will take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 1 hour before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking aluminum hydroxide 1 hour before cimetidine allows enough time for the antacid's effects on stomach acidity to stabilize, reducing interference.
C. "I can take aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) 2 hours before taking cimetidine (Tagamet HB)." – This is incorrect. Taking the antacid 2 hours before cimetidine provides sufficient time for proper absorption of the medication.
D. None of the above – This is incorrect because statement A reflects improper administration.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Glucagon is not used to treat thyroid cancer; treatments for thyroid cancer often include radioactive iodine therapy or surgery.
B. Glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia in diabetic patients when they are unable to take oral glucose. It works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, rapidly raising blood sugar levels.
C. Diabetes insipidus involves a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone or kidney insensitivity to it and is treated with desmopressin or adequate hydration, not glucagon.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is typically managed with lifestyle changes, oral antidiabetic agents, or insulin. Glucagon is not used for routine management but is reserved for severe hypoglycemia emergencies.
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