A nurse is caring for a client with a ventricular pacemaker who is on ECG monitoring. The nurse understands that the pacemaker is functioning properly when which of the following appears on the monitor strip?

Pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex

Pacemaker spikes after each QRS complex

Pacemaker spikes before each P wave

Pacemaker spikes with each T wave

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex: This is the correct answer. In a client with a ventricular pacemaker, the pacemaker spikes should precede each QRS complex on the ECG strip. This indicates that the pacemaker is appropriately stimulating the ventricles to depolarize and initiate a heartbeat. The

presence of pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex signifies that the pacemaker is functioning properly and effectively pacing the ventricles.

B. Pacemaker spikes occurring after each QRS complex would suggest a malfunction or inappropriate timing of the pacemaker. In this scenario, the pacemaker would not be pacing the ventricles as intended. This would be an abnormal finding and would require further assessment and intervention.

C. Pacemaker spikes preceding each P wave would suggest pacing of the atria rather than the ventricles. This would indicate a different type of pacemaker (atrial pacemaker) or inappropriate pacing settings for a ventricular pacemaker. In either case, it would be considered abnormal for a ventricular pacemaker and would require evaluation and possibly reprogramming of the pacemaker.

D. Pacemaker spikes occurring with each T wave would be an abnormal finding and would suggest interference or oversensing by the pacemaker. This could lead to inappropriate pacing or dysrhythmias. It would require further investigation and correction to ensure proper pacemaker function.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","F"]

Explanation

A. Administering antibiotics helps target the suspected infection and prevent its spread. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are typically initiated until the specific pathogen is identified through cultures. This action should be completed as soon as possible within the first hour.

D. Lactate measurement is important in assessing tissue perfusion and the severity of sepsis. Elevated lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion and can help identify patients at higher risk of mortality. Monitoring lactate levels guides resuscitation efforts and helps in assessing the response to treatment.

E. Fluid resuscitation is a cornerstone in the management of sepsis. Administering a large volume of intravenous fluids helps restore intravascular volume, improve tissue perfusion, and prevent further organ dysfunction. The recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg of crystalloid solution, such as normal saline, administered rapidly within the first few hours of recognition of sepsis.

F. Blood cultures help identify the causative organism(s) responsible for the sepsis. This information is crucial for guiding antibiotic therapy, especially in cases of severe sepsis or septic shock. Blood cultures should be obtained before initiating antibiotic therapy to maximize their sensitivity and specificity.

B. Type and cross-match for packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are indicated in situations where blood transfusion may be required, such as severe anemia or active bleeding. While sepsis can lead to various complications, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the priority in the first hour is resuscitation and antibiotic administration.

G. Obtaining a urine specimen may be indicated to assess for urinary tract infection (UTI), which can be a potential source of sepsis. However, in the initial management of sepsis, obtaining blood cultures (option F) takes precedence as blood cultures provide more critical information for guiding antibiotic therapy.

H. Obtaining a wound culture may help identify the specific pathogens present in the wound and guide antibiotic therapy if the wound is suspected to be the source of sepsis. However, in the first hour of managing sepsis, the priority is to initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics and obtain blood cultures, as these interventions are more urgent in preventing further complications from sepsis.

A. Irregular B. Bounding C. Not palpable D. Slow

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A In atrial fibrillation (AF), the electrical activity in the atria is chaotic, leading to an irregularly irregular ventricular response. As a result, the pulse felt at the radial artery will be irregular, with no discernible pattern. The irregularity is a hallmark feature of AF and is often described as "irregularly irregular."

B Bounding pulses are characterized by a strong and forceful pulsation felt at the arterial pulse sites. In atrial fibrillation, the irregular and rapid ventricular response can lead to an increased stroke volume and forceful contraction of the left ventricle during diastole, resulting in bounding pulses. However, bounding pulses are not typically associated with atrial fibrillation; they are more commonly seen in conditions such as aortic regurgitation or hyperdynamic circulation.

C In some cases of atrial fibrillation, especially if the ventricular rate is very rapid or irregularly irregular, the pulse may not be palpable due to the inconsistent ventricular contractions.

However, in most cases of atrial fibrillation, a pulse is palpable, albeit irregular.

D Atrial fibrillation can result in a rapid ventricular response, leading to a fast heart rate. However, the pulse rate can vary widely among individuals with atrial fibrillation. While some may have a rapid heart rate (tachycardia), others may have a slower heart rate (bradycardia), depending on factors such as concomitant medications, autonomic tone, and the presence of underlying heart disease.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is caring for a client with a ventricular pacemaker who is on ECG monitoring. The nurse understands that the pacemaker is functioning properly when which of the following appears on the monitor strip?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old client in the emergency department (ED) Exhibits It has been identified that the client is in sepsis. Select the 4 actions that the nurse should complete in the first hour to manage sepsis and prevent further complications?

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","F"]

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following pulse characteristics should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and whose respirations are shallow and 9/min. Which of the following acid-based imbalances should the nurse identify the client as being at risk for developing initially?

A nurse in an urgent care center is assessing a client who reports a sudden onset of irregular palpitations, fatigue, and dizziness. The nurse finds a rapid and irregular heart rate with a significant pulse deficit. Which of the following dysrhythmias should the nurse expect to find on the ECG?

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine IV infusion. Which finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted?

A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

A patient develops increasing dyspnea and hypoxemia 2 days after heart surgery. What procedure should the nurse anticipate assisting with to determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by heart failure?

A nurse is collecting a medication history from a client who is scheduled to have a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following medications taken by the client interacts with contrast material and places the client at risk for acute kidney injury?

Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the patient's caregiver is accurate?