When admitting a patient with possible respiratory failure and a high PaCO2, which assessment information should be immediately reported to the health care provider?

The patient's blood pressure is 164/98.

The patient appears somnolent.

The patient's oxygen saturation is 90%.

The patient reports feeling weak.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

B Somnolence, or excessive sleepiness, can indicate respiratory depression, hypercapnia (elevated PaCO2), or impending respiratory failure. Somnolence in this context is concerning as it may suggest worsening respiratory status and impending respiratory compromise. Therefore, it should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.

A blood pressure of 164/98 mmHg is elevated but may not necessarily require immediate intervention, especially if the patient is not exhibiting signs of acute hypertensive crisis or end-organ damage.

However, it should be closely monitored and managed as appropriate. While hypertension may contribute to respiratory distress, it may not be the most critical finding to report immediately in a patient with possible respiratory failure and a high PaCO2.

C An oxygen saturation of 90% indicates hypoxemia, which can exacerbate respiratory failure and contribute to respiratory distress. While hypoxemia requires prompt intervention to improve oxygenation, it may not be the most critical finding to report immediately if the patient is not showing signs of severe respiratory distress or impending respiratory failure. However, it should be closely monitored and managed to prevent further deterioration.

D Weakness is a nonspecific symptom and may be related to various underlying causes, including respiratory failure, electrolyte imbalances, or systemic illness. While weakness warrants further assessment and management, it may not be the most urgent finding to report immediately in a patient with possible respiratory failure and a high PaCO2 unless it is accompanied by other concerning symptoms or signs of impending respiratory compromise.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. Amiodarone is a Class III antiarrhythmic medication commonly used for the acute management of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. It works by blocking multiple ion channels, prolonging the action potential duration, and slowing conduction in the atria and ventricles. Amiodarone is often used when other interventions such as vagal maneuvers or beta blockers are ineffective or contraindicated. In this scenario, where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic, intravenous amiodarone may be administered to control the ventricular rate and stabilize hemodynamics

A. Bearing down, or the Valsalva maneuver, is a vagal maneuver that can sometimes help slow the heart rate in certain arrhythmias by increasing parasympathetic tone. However, it may not be effective or safe in all situations, especially if the patient is hypotensive or confused. In this scenario, immediate pharmacological intervention is likely needed to control the heart rate and stabilize hemodynamics.

B. Lidocaine is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It is not considered a first-line agent for atrial fibrillation and may not effectively control the ventricular rate in this situation.

D. While beta blockers are commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation, they may not be the best choice in this scenario where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic. Beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure and exacerbate hypotension, especially in patients with compromised hemodynamics. In such cases, other rate-controlling agents like calcium channel blockers or amiodarone may be preferred.

A. QRS complex B. QT interval C. ST segment D. PR interval

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization and repolarization. It starts at the beginning of the QRS complex and ends at the end of the T wave. The QT interval reflects the total time it takes for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur. Prolongation of the QT interval can be associated with an increased risk of arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes.

A. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, which is the electrical activation of the ventricles. The duration of the QRS complex provides information about the time it takes for ventricular depolarization to occur. A prolonged QRS complex can indicate abnormalities in ventricular conduction, such as bundle branch blocks or ventricular hypertrophy.

C. The ST segment represents the early part of ventricular repolarization. It starts at the end of the QRS complex and ends at the beginning of the T wave. Changes in the ST segment, such as elevation or depression, can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury.

D. The PR interval represents the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. It includes atrial depolarization, atrial contraction, and the delay at the atrioventricular node. The PR interval does not specifically provide information about ventricular depolarization and repolarization.

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When admitting a patient with possible respiratory failure and a high PaCO2, which assessment information should be immediately reported to the health care provider?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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