A nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell anemia. The client asks, "Why am I in so much pain?" What is an appropriate response from the nurse to make to this client?
"You are not taking deep breaths, and that is causing your pain."
"Your red blood cells are not the correct shape, and that causes blood flow to become blocked."
"You have a genetic disorder, and the mutated gene causes increased pain."
"You are anemic, and the lack of hemoglobin causes pain."
The Correct Answer is B
A. While deep breathing can help alleviate pain, it is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia; this response could minimize the client's experience.
B. Sickle cell anemia causes red blood cells to become rigid and shaped like a sickle, which can obstruct blood flow and lead to vaso-occlusive crises, resulting in pain.
C. Although sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder, simply stating that the mutated gene causes increased pain is too vague and does not explain the pain mechanism adequately.
D. While anemia can contribute to fatigue and some discomfort, the pain in sickle cell anemia is primarily due to the sickling of red blood cells and subsequent blockage of blood flow, rather than just the lack of hemoglobin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This statement accurately reflects the importance of adherence to ART; if medication is missed, the virus may replicate unchecked, leading to drug resistance, which is a significant concern in HIV treatment.
B. This statement is incorrect because the conversion of RNA to DNA is a normal part of the HIV life cycle and is not directly prevented by taking medication on time.
C. While protease inhibitors do help prevent the assembly of new virions, the primary concern when missing doses is the risk of resistance rather than assembly prevention.
D. This statement is misleading; while effective ART can lead to an increase in CD4 counts over time, missing doses would not directly cause an increase in CD4 lymphocyte counts.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ensuring the blood is compatible with the client's blood type is critical in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, as incompatible blood transfusions can cause serious, potentially life-threatening reactions.
B. Administering the transfusion rapidly can increase the risk of complications and does not prevent hemolytic reactions; transfusions should be given at a safe rate based on the client's condition.
C. Using a blood warmer is not a standard intervention to prevent hemolytic reactions; it's typically used in specific cases such as massive transfusions or hypothermia, but it does not address compatibility.
D. Administering prophylactic antihistamines is not a recommended practice to prevent hemolytic reactions; it is more relevant for preventing allergic reactions associated with transfusions.
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