A nurse is caring for a patient who is newly diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis and has been on a continuous heparin infusion for 3 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin without discontinuing the heparin. The patient asks why both drugs are necessary. What is the appropriate response by the nurse?

A "Warfarin takes several days to work, so the heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level."

"The heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay."

"I will call the provider to discontinue the heparin."

"Both medications work together to dissolve the clots."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "Warfarin takes several days to work, so the heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level":
This response is correct because warfarin, an oral anticoagulant, takes several days to reach its full therapeutic effect due to its mechanism of action on vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, heparin, which has an immediate onset of action, is used concurrently to prevent new clot formation until warfarin reaches therapeutic levels. Once warfarin reaches its therapeutic range, heparin is typically discontinued.

B. "The heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay":
This statement is incorrect. While heparin and warfarin both act as anticoagulants, they have different mechanisms of action. Heparin works rapidly by inhibiting thrombin, while warfarin acts more slowly by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The concurrent use of heparin and warfarin is not to increase the effects of warfarin but rather to bridge the gap until warfarin reaches therapeutic levels.

C. "I will call the provider to discontinue the heparin":
Discontinuing heparin without a clear order from the provider could be inappropriate and potentially dangerous. Abrupt discontinuation of heparin before warfarin reaches therapeutic levels could increase the risk of thrombus formation or embolization. The decision to discontinue heparin should be made by the provider based on the patient's individual clinical status and response to therapy.

D. "Both medications work together to dissolve the clots":
While both heparin and warfarin are anticoagulants used to prevent further clot formation and propagation, they do not directly dissolve existing clots. Instead, they prevent the formation of new clots and allow the body's natural fibrinolytic system to gradually break down existing clots. Therefore, this statement is not entirely accurate in describing the mechanism of action of these medications.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Review serum electrolytes: Muscle cramps can be associated with electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can occur as a side effect of ARB medications. Therefore, reviewing the patient's serum electrolyte levels, including potassium, can help identify any abnormalities that may be contributing to the muscle cramps. If hypokalemia is present, appropriate interventions such as potassium supplementation or adjustment of the ARB dosage may be necessary to alleviate the muscle cramps.

B. Request the patient's food diary: While assessing the patient's food diary may provide information about their dietary habits and potential factors contributing to muscle cramps (such as dehydration or inadequate nutrient intake), it may not directly address the potential electrolyte imbalance associated with ARB use. Therefore, while obtaining a food diary may be relevant, it is not the priority action in this scenario.

C. Place the patient on bed rest: Placing the patient on bed rest is not indicated solely based on complaints of muscle cramps. Muscle cramps can have various causes, and restricting the patient's activity may not address the underlying issue. Additionally, bed rest could lead to other complications such as deconditioning or venous thromboembolism, which are not warranted in this situation.

D. Observing vital signs: While monitoring vital signs is a routine nursing intervention, it may not directly address the patient's complaint of muscle cramps. Vital signs may be relevant in assessing overall health status, but they may not provide specific information about the cause of muscle cramps or guide appropriate interventions.

A. Using appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE). B. Placing patient in positive pressure isolation room C. Placing patient in contact precautions D. Wearing gloves at all times.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Using appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE): Standard precautions include the use of PPE such as gloves, masks, gowns, and eye protection when caring for all patients, regardless of their known or suspected infectious status. This helps prevent the transmission of pathogens between the patient and the healthcare provider.

B. Placing patient in positive pressure isolation room: Placing a patient in a positive pressure isolation room is not a component of standard precautions. Positive pressure rooms are typically used for patients with compromised immune systems to protect them from exposure to airborne pathogens. Standard precautions should be followed regardless of the patient's room type.

C. Placing patient in contact precautions: Contact precautions involve specific measures to prevent the transmission of pathogens through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. While contact precautions may be necessary for certain infectious diseases, they are not a component of standard precautions.

D. Wearing gloves at all times: While wearing gloves is part of standard precautions, it is not the only key element. Standard precautions also include other forms of PPE such as masks, gowns, and eye protection, as well as other infection control practices such as hand hygiene and environmental cleaning.

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